NR 601 READING QUIZ UPDATE
VERIFIED QUESTIONS & DETAILED
EXPLANATIONS GRADED A+
Professional Academic Assistance Services
The pathophysiology that underlies the formation of
atherosclerotic plaque in coronary arteries is primarily
associated with which the following mechanisms? - Answer:
Inflammation
An 80 year old woman is evaluated in your clinic for muscle
aches. Her daughter, who is a nurse, states that her symptoms
worsened after recently starting atorvastatin 80 mg daily. This
medication and dose was selected based on the patient wanting
to reduce her chance of a heart attack or stroke. She has a
known history of stable coronary artery disease, without prior
coronary revascularization. She takes low dose aspirin and her
blood pressure is well controlled on lisinopril 20 mg once daily.
You recognize that myalgia and myopathic symptoms are dose
related and more common in older adults prescribed statins.
Which of the following recommendations would be appropriate
at this time? - Answer: Discontinue atorvastatin until the
myopathy has resolved, then consider restarting atorvastatin at
a low dose, such as 10 mg once daily or an alternative statin.
,A 75 year old man with stable ischemic heart disease and
moderate angina returns for follow up. Prior stress testing has
documented myocardial ischemia. A coronary angiogram
performed 6 months ago showed that he has few options for
revascularization and should be managed medically, although
high0risk percutaneous coronary intervention can be performed
for lifestyle limiting symptoms. Reviewing his medications, it
appears that has been taking amlodipine 10mg daily, in addition
to statin, aspiring, and as needed sublingual nitroglycerin. What
would be the most appropriate next step in his management? -
Answer: His antianginal regimen should be improved to include
the addition of a beta blocker and/or a long acting nitrate.
A 88 year old femal patient with Parkinson disease presents to
clinic for hospital follow up for atrial Fib with rapid RVR. Home
heart rate monitoring shows good rate control of her AF
ventricular rates. She has a history of falls and labile
international normalized ration with irregular adherence with
blood draws. Her current medications include carbidopa-
levodopa, metoprolol, and warfarin and she has a robust drug
plan that allowed for a variety of medications choices. What
changes would you recommend to her medications regimen? -
Answer: Convert warfarin to a direct oral anticoagulant
In patient with heart failure, the most useful initial imaging
modality is - Answer: Transthoracic echocardiogram
, Compared with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
angiotensin receptor blocker are less likely to be associated with
- Answer: Angioedema
Which class of drug has not been shown to provide a mortality
benefit in heart failure patients with reduced ejection fraction -
Answer: Diuretics
Which of the following would be consistent with the new onset
of heart failure in an older patient - Answer: Dyspnea,
worsening ability to self care, anorexia, confusion (all of the
above)
A 65 year old male is evaluated in a follow up examination for
worsening dyspnea and chronic cough productive of mucoid
sputum for the past 6 months. He is otherwise healthy but was
diagnosed with COPD 3 years ago and needed inhaled albuterol
as needed. The patient has a 40 pack year history but quit 8
months ago. ON PE VS are normal and the patient is not in any
respiratory distress. Breath sounds are decreased but there is no
edema or jugular venous distention. Spirometry shows a forced
expiratory volume in the first second FEV1 of 58% of predicted
with no reversibility of FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC) ration of
65%. His COPD symptoms seem poorly controlled and he has
VERIFIED QUESTIONS & DETAILED
EXPLANATIONS GRADED A+
Professional Academic Assistance Services
The pathophysiology that underlies the formation of
atherosclerotic plaque in coronary arteries is primarily
associated with which the following mechanisms? - Answer:
Inflammation
An 80 year old woman is evaluated in your clinic for muscle
aches. Her daughter, who is a nurse, states that her symptoms
worsened after recently starting atorvastatin 80 mg daily. This
medication and dose was selected based on the patient wanting
to reduce her chance of a heart attack or stroke. She has a
known history of stable coronary artery disease, without prior
coronary revascularization. She takes low dose aspirin and her
blood pressure is well controlled on lisinopril 20 mg once daily.
You recognize that myalgia and myopathic symptoms are dose
related and more common in older adults prescribed statins.
Which of the following recommendations would be appropriate
at this time? - Answer: Discontinue atorvastatin until the
myopathy has resolved, then consider restarting atorvastatin at
a low dose, such as 10 mg once daily or an alternative statin.
,A 75 year old man with stable ischemic heart disease and
moderate angina returns for follow up. Prior stress testing has
documented myocardial ischemia. A coronary angiogram
performed 6 months ago showed that he has few options for
revascularization and should be managed medically, although
high0risk percutaneous coronary intervention can be performed
for lifestyle limiting symptoms. Reviewing his medications, it
appears that has been taking amlodipine 10mg daily, in addition
to statin, aspiring, and as needed sublingual nitroglycerin. What
would be the most appropriate next step in his management? -
Answer: His antianginal regimen should be improved to include
the addition of a beta blocker and/or a long acting nitrate.
A 88 year old femal patient with Parkinson disease presents to
clinic for hospital follow up for atrial Fib with rapid RVR. Home
heart rate monitoring shows good rate control of her AF
ventricular rates. She has a history of falls and labile
international normalized ration with irregular adherence with
blood draws. Her current medications include carbidopa-
levodopa, metoprolol, and warfarin and she has a robust drug
plan that allowed for a variety of medications choices. What
changes would you recommend to her medications regimen? -
Answer: Convert warfarin to a direct oral anticoagulant
In patient with heart failure, the most useful initial imaging
modality is - Answer: Transthoracic echocardiogram
, Compared with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
angiotensin receptor blocker are less likely to be associated with
- Answer: Angioedema
Which class of drug has not been shown to provide a mortality
benefit in heart failure patients with reduced ejection fraction -
Answer: Diuretics
Which of the following would be consistent with the new onset
of heart failure in an older patient - Answer: Dyspnea,
worsening ability to self care, anorexia, confusion (all of the
above)
A 65 year old male is evaluated in a follow up examination for
worsening dyspnea and chronic cough productive of mucoid
sputum for the past 6 months. He is otherwise healthy but was
diagnosed with COPD 3 years ago and needed inhaled albuterol
as needed. The patient has a 40 pack year history but quit 8
months ago. ON PE VS are normal and the patient is not in any
respiratory distress. Breath sounds are decreased but there is no
edema or jugular venous distention. Spirometry shows a forced
expiratory volume in the first second FEV1 of 58% of predicted
with no reversibility of FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC) ration of
65%. His COPD symptoms seem poorly controlled and he has
