Western Governors University NURS 120 Week 7 Quiz (pdf)
| 2026/2027 | Introduction to Medical-Surgical Nursing
Q&A | Nursing
1. A nurse is assessing a patient who is 24 hours post-operative and reports sudden chest pain
and shortness of breath. Which complication should the nurse suspect first?
A) Atelectasis
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Pneumonia
D) Deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Sudden chest pain and dyspnea in a postoperative patient are classic manifestations of
pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening emergency. Atelectasis typically presents with gradual
hypoxemia and decreased breath sounds rather than acute pleuritic pain. Immediate assessment and
intervention are critical because PE can rapidly progress to hemodynamic collapse.
2. When implementing standard precautions, which action is the single most effective way to
prevent the spread of infection?
A) Wearing a gown for all patient contact
B) Double-gloving during invasive procedures
C) Performing hand hygiene
D) Wearing an N95 respirator at all times
Correct Answer: Performing hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene is documented as the single most effective action to prevent healthcare-
associated infection transmission. Gowns, gloves, and respirators are indicated for specific isolation
precautions but do not replace hand hygiene. Consistent hand hygiene before and after patient
contact remains the cornerstone of infection control.
3. A patient with a history of COPD is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which flow rate
should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider?
A) 1 L/min
B) 2 L/min
C) 3 L/min
D) 6 L/min
Correct Answer: 6 L/min
Rationale: High oxygen flow rates in COPD patients can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe, leading
to hypoventilation and CO2 retention. Typical target oxygen saturation for COPD patients is 88% to
,92%, achieved with low-flow rates of 1 to 3 L/min. A rate of 6 L/min exceeds safe parameters and
requires clarification.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a patient with Type 1 Diabetes. Which
injection site provides the fastest absorption rate?
A) Abdomen
B) Upper arm
C) Thigh
D) Buttock
Correct Answer: Abdomen
Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for insulin administration because it has the most rapid
and consistent absorption rate compared to other sites. Upper arms, thighs, and buttocks have
progressively slower absorption. Rotation within one anatomical site is recommended to prevent
lipodystrophy.
5. A nurse identifies that a patient has a serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L. Which
electrocardiogram change is most commonly associated with this value?
A) Presence of U waves
B) Widened QRS complex
C) Peaked T waves
D) Shortened PR interval
Correct Answer: Presence of U waves
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium below 3.5 mEq/L) is associated with the presence of U waves and
flattened or inverted T waves on ECG. Peaked T waves are characteristic of hyperkalemia. U waves
represent delayed ventricular repolarization due to low potassium levels.
6. During a preoperative assessment, a patient reports allergies to bananas and avocados.
Which cross-sensitivity should the nurse be concerned about?
A) Latex
B) Penicillin
C) Iodine
D) Sulfa drugs
Correct Answer: Latex
Rationale: Certain food allergies including bananas, avocados, and kiwi are associated with a higher
risk of latex allergy due to cross-reactive proteins. This cross-reactivity occurs because these foods
contain proteins structurally similar to those in natural rubber latex. The nurse should ensure latex-
free precautions are implemented.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient in the oliguric phase of Acute Kidney Injury. What is the
primary nursing concern during this phase?
, A) Hypovolemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Fluid volume excess
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Fluid volume excess
Rationale: During the oliguric phase of AKI, urine output decreases significantly, leading to fluid
retention, edema, and potential heart failure or pulmonary edema. Hypovolemia and hypokalemia
are not characteristic of this phase. Careful monitoring of intake and output, daily weights, and
electrolyte levels is essential.
8. The nurse is educating a patient about a clear liquid diet. Which item is not permitted on this
diet?
A) Apple juice
B) Vanilla pudding
C) Clear broth
D) Jell-O
Correct Answer: Vanilla pudding
Rationale: Vanilla pudding is considered a full liquid because it contains dairy and is not transparent.
Clear liquids must be liquid at room temperature and transparent, allowing light to pass through.
This distinction is important for patients requiring bowel rest or preoperative preparation.
9. A patient admitted with fluid volume excess is likely to exhibit which clinical manifestation?
A) Tachycardia and flat neck veins
B) Crackles in the lungs and distended neck veins
C) Dry mucous membranes and tenting skin
D) Increased hematocrit and BUN levels
Correct Answer: Crackles in the lungs and distended neck veins
Rationale: Fluid volume excess presents with crackles in the lungs due to pulmonary edema and
jugular vein distention from increased venous pressure. Tachycardia and flat neck veins indicate fluid
deficit. Daily weights and lung auscultation are key monitoring parameters for fluid status.
10. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with a positive Chvostek's sign?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypomagnesemia
Correct Answer: Hypocalcemia
| 2026/2027 | Introduction to Medical-Surgical Nursing
Q&A | Nursing
1. A nurse is assessing a patient who is 24 hours post-operative and reports sudden chest pain
and shortness of breath. Which complication should the nurse suspect first?
A) Atelectasis
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Pneumonia
D) Deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Sudden chest pain and dyspnea in a postoperative patient are classic manifestations of
pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening emergency. Atelectasis typically presents with gradual
hypoxemia and decreased breath sounds rather than acute pleuritic pain. Immediate assessment and
intervention are critical because PE can rapidly progress to hemodynamic collapse.
2. When implementing standard precautions, which action is the single most effective way to
prevent the spread of infection?
A) Wearing a gown for all patient contact
B) Double-gloving during invasive procedures
C) Performing hand hygiene
D) Wearing an N95 respirator at all times
Correct Answer: Performing hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene is documented as the single most effective action to prevent healthcare-
associated infection transmission. Gowns, gloves, and respirators are indicated for specific isolation
precautions but do not replace hand hygiene. Consistent hand hygiene before and after patient
contact remains the cornerstone of infection control.
3. A patient with a history of COPD is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which flow rate
should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider?
A) 1 L/min
B) 2 L/min
C) 3 L/min
D) 6 L/min
Correct Answer: 6 L/min
Rationale: High oxygen flow rates in COPD patients can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe, leading
to hypoventilation and CO2 retention. Typical target oxygen saturation for COPD patients is 88% to
,92%, achieved with low-flow rates of 1 to 3 L/min. A rate of 6 L/min exceeds safe parameters and
requires clarification.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a patient with Type 1 Diabetes. Which
injection site provides the fastest absorption rate?
A) Abdomen
B) Upper arm
C) Thigh
D) Buttock
Correct Answer: Abdomen
Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for insulin administration because it has the most rapid
and consistent absorption rate compared to other sites. Upper arms, thighs, and buttocks have
progressively slower absorption. Rotation within one anatomical site is recommended to prevent
lipodystrophy.
5. A nurse identifies that a patient has a serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L. Which
electrocardiogram change is most commonly associated with this value?
A) Presence of U waves
B) Widened QRS complex
C) Peaked T waves
D) Shortened PR interval
Correct Answer: Presence of U waves
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium below 3.5 mEq/L) is associated with the presence of U waves and
flattened or inverted T waves on ECG. Peaked T waves are characteristic of hyperkalemia. U waves
represent delayed ventricular repolarization due to low potassium levels.
6. During a preoperative assessment, a patient reports allergies to bananas and avocados.
Which cross-sensitivity should the nurse be concerned about?
A) Latex
B) Penicillin
C) Iodine
D) Sulfa drugs
Correct Answer: Latex
Rationale: Certain food allergies including bananas, avocados, and kiwi are associated with a higher
risk of latex allergy due to cross-reactive proteins. This cross-reactivity occurs because these foods
contain proteins structurally similar to those in natural rubber latex. The nurse should ensure latex-
free precautions are implemented.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient in the oliguric phase of Acute Kidney Injury. What is the
primary nursing concern during this phase?
, A) Hypovolemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Fluid volume excess
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Fluid volume excess
Rationale: During the oliguric phase of AKI, urine output decreases significantly, leading to fluid
retention, edema, and potential heart failure or pulmonary edema. Hypovolemia and hypokalemia
are not characteristic of this phase. Careful monitoring of intake and output, daily weights, and
electrolyte levels is essential.
8. The nurse is educating a patient about a clear liquid diet. Which item is not permitted on this
diet?
A) Apple juice
B) Vanilla pudding
C) Clear broth
D) Jell-O
Correct Answer: Vanilla pudding
Rationale: Vanilla pudding is considered a full liquid because it contains dairy and is not transparent.
Clear liquids must be liquid at room temperature and transparent, allowing light to pass through.
This distinction is important for patients requiring bowel rest or preoperative preparation.
9. A patient admitted with fluid volume excess is likely to exhibit which clinical manifestation?
A) Tachycardia and flat neck veins
B) Crackles in the lungs and distended neck veins
C) Dry mucous membranes and tenting skin
D) Increased hematocrit and BUN levels
Correct Answer: Crackles in the lungs and distended neck veins
Rationale: Fluid volume excess presents with crackles in the lungs due to pulmonary edema and
jugular vein distention from increased venous pressure. Tachycardia and flat neck veins indicate fluid
deficit. Daily weights and lung auscultation are key monitoring parameters for fluid status.
10. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with a positive Chvostek's sign?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypomagnesemia
Correct Answer: Hypocalcemia
