A+ VERIFIED
MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
A+ Graded ATI PN Maternal Newborn Final Exam
Chamberlain College of Nursing — Complete
Official Exam
60 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
02 Intrapartum Care & Labor Management
03 Postpartum Care & Complications
04 Newborn Assessment & Care
05 High-Risk Pregnancy & Complications
06 Maternal-Newborn Pharmacology & Safety
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in maternal-newborn nursing — from antepartum care and fetal development to intrapartum labor management, postpartum
care, newborn assessment, high-risk pregnancy complications, and maternal-newborn pharmacology and safety. This original study bank
targets application and analysis skills for the ATI PN Maternal Newborn exam, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not
an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
75% Advanced (Maternal-Newborn Nursing) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
,SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
Q1. A 24-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation attends her first prenatal visit. She reports mild nausea and asks about
expected weight gain. The nurse reviews her pre-pregnancy BMI of 22. Which teaching statement is most appropriate
regarding total weight gain for this pregnancy?
A. Limit total gain to 15 to 20 pounds to reduce complications.
B. Aim for 40 to 50 pounds because first pregnancies require more reserves.
C. Gain 25 to 35 pounds total across the pregnancy.
D. Weight gain is unrestricted as long as the client feels well.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a client with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5–24.9), the recommended total weight gain is 25–35 lb. Restricting gain to
15–20 lb is appropriate only for clients with obesity, while 40–50 lb exceeds guidelines and increases risk of gestational diabetes
and macrosomia. Unrestricted gain is never advised.
Q2. During a routine prenatal appointment at 28 weeks, a client reports feeling short of breath when lying flat. The nurse
notes the fundal height is consistent with dates. Which physiologic change of pregnancy best explains this symptom?
A. Decreased circulating blood volume leads to tissue hypoxia in the third trimester.
B. Diaphragmatic elevation caused by the enlarging uterus reduces lung expansion when supine.
C. Progesterone-driven hyperventilation causes chronic respiratory alkalosis and dyspnea.
D. Increased tidal volume permanently enlarges residual lung capacity, creating air hunger.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: As the uterus rises, the diaphragm is pushed upward, reducing residual volume and making supine positioning more
uncomfortable. Circulating blood volume actually increases, not decreases. While progesterone does increase respiratory drive,
the positional dyspnea is primarily mechanical. Residual capacity is reduced, not enlarged.
Q3. A client at 16 weeks gestation has a positive indirect Coombs test. The nurse understands this result indicates which
finding?
A. The fetus is currently experiencing active hemolysis and anemia.
B. The client requires immediate administration of Rho(D) immune globulin.
C. The placenta is producing excess human chorionic gonadotropin.
D. Maternal sensitization to fetal red-blood-cell antigens has occurred.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test detects maternal antibodies against fetal RBC antigens, confirming sensitization. It does not by
itself diagnose fetal hemolysis (that requires further testing such as middle-cerebral-artery Doppler). Rho(D) immune globulin is
given to prevent sensitization in Rh-negative, unsensitized clients; it is not indicated after sensitization has already occurred.
Q4. At a 20-week ultrasound, the nurse notes the amniotic fluid index is 6 cm. Which clinical implication is most accurate?
A. The value is borderline low and warrants closer surveillance for oligohydramnios.
B. The measurement confirms normal fluid volume for mid-gestation.
C. An AFI of 6 cm is diagnostic of polyhydramnios and requires immediate delivery.
D. Amniotic fluid volume is irrelevant once fetal kidneys are functioning.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An AFI of 5–8 cm is considered borderline; values ≤5 cm indicate oligohydramnios. Normal AFI is roughly 8–18 cm.
Polyhydramnios is defined by AFI ≥24–25 cm. Fetal kidney function contributes to fluid volume after 16 weeks, so the
measurement remains clinically relevant.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
Q5. A primigravida at 32 weeks reports that fetal movements have decreased over the past 24 hours. The nurse instructs her
on kick counts. Which finding should prompt the client to seek immediate care?
A. Fewer than 20 movements counted during an 8-hour workday.
B. Fewer than 10 distinct movements felt within a 2-hour period while resting.
C. Any decrease from the previous day’s total, regardless of absolute number.
D. Movements felt only on the right side of the abdomen.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Cardiff count-to-ten method advises contacting the provider if fewer than 10 movements occur in 2 hours of focused
counting. Absolute daily totals vary widely; a side-to-side preference is normal as the fetus settles into position. Persistent
reduction below the 10-in-2-hour threshold is the evidence-based red flag.
Q6. A client at 10 weeks gestation asks why the nurse is measuring fundal height when the uterus is still pelvic. Which
response is most accurate?
A. Fundal height is measured weekly from conception to track early embryonic growth.
B. Fundal height is not routinely measured until the uterus rises above the pubic symphysis around 12 weeks.
C. At 10 weeks the fundus is already at the umbilicus, so measurement is essential.
D. Fundal height is used only after 28 weeks to estimate fetal weight.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The uterus remains a pelvic organ until approximately 12 weeks, when the fundus becomes palpable above the symphysis.
Routine serial fundal-height measurement begins in the second trimester. At 10 weeks the fundus is not at the umbilicus (that
occurs near 20 weeks), and the measurement is not deferred until 28 weeks.
Q7. During genetic counseling, a couple learns both partners are carriers of sickle-cell trait. The nurse explains the
probability that their child will inherit sickle-cell disease. Which statement is correct?
A. There is a 50 percent chance the child will have sickle-cell disease.
B. All offspring will be carriers but none will have the disease.
C. The risk is 100 percent because both parents carry the trait.
D. There is a 25 percent chance the child will have sickle-cell disease.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sickle-cell disease follows autosomal-recessive inheritance. When both parents are heterozygous carriers, each pregnancy has
a 25 % chance of an affected (homozygous) child, a 50 % chance of a carrier, and a 25 % chance of an unaffected non-carrier.
The 50 % figure applies only to the carrier probability, not disease.
Q8. A client at 24 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose challenge result of 148 mg/dL. Which next step does the nurse
anticipate?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and begin insulin therapy immediately.
B. Repeat the 1-hour screen in one week because the value is only mildly elevated.
C. Reassure the client that values under 180 mg/dL are within normal limits.
D. Schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test for definitive diagnosis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge ≥140 mg/dL (some centers use 130–135) is a positive screen that requires the diagnostic 3-hour
OGTT. It is not itself diagnostic, so insulin is not started on this result alone. Repeating the screen is not standard; the threshold
is far below 180 mg/dL.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
A+ Graded ATI PN Maternal Newborn Final Exam
Chamberlain College of Nursing — Complete
Official Exam
60 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
02 Intrapartum Care & Labor Management
03 Postpartum Care & Complications
04 Newborn Assessment & Care
05 High-Risk Pregnancy & Complications
06 Maternal-Newborn Pharmacology & Safety
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in maternal-newborn nursing — from antepartum care and fetal development to intrapartum labor management, postpartum
care, newborn assessment, high-risk pregnancy complications, and maternal-newborn pharmacology and safety. This original study bank
targets application and analysis skills for the ATI PN Maternal Newborn exam, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not
an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
75% Advanced (Maternal-Newborn Nursing) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
,SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
Q1. A 24-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation attends her first prenatal visit. She reports mild nausea and asks about
expected weight gain. The nurse reviews her pre-pregnancy BMI of 22. Which teaching statement is most appropriate
regarding total weight gain for this pregnancy?
A. Limit total gain to 15 to 20 pounds to reduce complications.
B. Aim for 40 to 50 pounds because first pregnancies require more reserves.
C. Gain 25 to 35 pounds total across the pregnancy.
D. Weight gain is unrestricted as long as the client feels well.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a client with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5–24.9), the recommended total weight gain is 25–35 lb. Restricting gain to
15–20 lb is appropriate only for clients with obesity, while 40–50 lb exceeds guidelines and increases risk of gestational diabetes
and macrosomia. Unrestricted gain is never advised.
Q2. During a routine prenatal appointment at 28 weeks, a client reports feeling short of breath when lying flat. The nurse
notes the fundal height is consistent with dates. Which physiologic change of pregnancy best explains this symptom?
A. Decreased circulating blood volume leads to tissue hypoxia in the third trimester.
B. Diaphragmatic elevation caused by the enlarging uterus reduces lung expansion when supine.
C. Progesterone-driven hyperventilation causes chronic respiratory alkalosis and dyspnea.
D. Increased tidal volume permanently enlarges residual lung capacity, creating air hunger.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: As the uterus rises, the diaphragm is pushed upward, reducing residual volume and making supine positioning more
uncomfortable. Circulating blood volume actually increases, not decreases. While progesterone does increase respiratory drive,
the positional dyspnea is primarily mechanical. Residual capacity is reduced, not enlarged.
Q3. A client at 16 weeks gestation has a positive indirect Coombs test. The nurse understands this result indicates which
finding?
A. The fetus is currently experiencing active hemolysis and anemia.
B. The client requires immediate administration of Rho(D) immune globulin.
C. The placenta is producing excess human chorionic gonadotropin.
D. Maternal sensitization to fetal red-blood-cell antigens has occurred.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test detects maternal antibodies against fetal RBC antigens, confirming sensitization. It does not by
itself diagnose fetal hemolysis (that requires further testing such as middle-cerebral-artery Doppler). Rho(D) immune globulin is
given to prevent sensitization in Rh-negative, unsensitized clients; it is not indicated after sensitization has already occurred.
Q4. At a 20-week ultrasound, the nurse notes the amniotic fluid index is 6 cm. Which clinical implication is most accurate?
A. The value is borderline low and warrants closer surveillance for oligohydramnios.
B. The measurement confirms normal fluid volume for mid-gestation.
C. An AFI of 6 cm is diagnostic of polyhydramnios and requires immediate delivery.
D. Amniotic fluid volume is irrelevant once fetal kidneys are functioning.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An AFI of 5–8 cm is considered borderline; values ≤5 cm indicate oligohydramnios. Normal AFI is roughly 8–18 cm.
Polyhydramnios is defined by AFI ≥24–25 cm. Fetal kidney function contributes to fluid volume after 16 weeks, so the
measurement remains clinically relevant.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
Q5. A primigravida at 32 weeks reports that fetal movements have decreased over the past 24 hours. The nurse instructs her
on kick counts. Which finding should prompt the client to seek immediate care?
A. Fewer than 20 movements counted during an 8-hour workday.
B. Fewer than 10 distinct movements felt within a 2-hour period while resting.
C. Any decrease from the previous day’s total, regardless of absolute number.
D. Movements felt only on the right side of the abdomen.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Cardiff count-to-ten method advises contacting the provider if fewer than 10 movements occur in 2 hours of focused
counting. Absolute daily totals vary widely; a side-to-side preference is normal as the fetus settles into position. Persistent
reduction below the 10-in-2-hour threshold is the evidence-based red flag.
Q6. A client at 10 weeks gestation asks why the nurse is measuring fundal height when the uterus is still pelvic. Which
response is most accurate?
A. Fundal height is measured weekly from conception to track early embryonic growth.
B. Fundal height is not routinely measured until the uterus rises above the pubic symphysis around 12 weeks.
C. At 10 weeks the fundus is already at the umbilicus, so measurement is essential.
D. Fundal height is used only after 28 weeks to estimate fetal weight.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The uterus remains a pelvic organ until approximately 12 weeks, when the fundus becomes palpable above the symphysis.
Routine serial fundal-height measurement begins in the second trimester. At 10 weeks the fundus is not at the umbilicus (that
occurs near 20 weeks), and the measurement is not deferred until 28 weeks.
Q7. During genetic counseling, a couple learns both partners are carriers of sickle-cell trait. The nurse explains the
probability that their child will inherit sickle-cell disease. Which statement is correct?
A. There is a 50 percent chance the child will have sickle-cell disease.
B. All offspring will be carriers but none will have the disease.
C. The risk is 100 percent because both parents carry the trait.
D. There is a 25 percent chance the child will have sickle-cell disease.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sickle-cell disease follows autosomal-recessive inheritance. When both parents are heterozygous carriers, each pregnancy has
a 25 % chance of an affected (homozygous) child, a 50 % chance of a carrier, and a 25 % chance of an unaffected non-carrier.
The 50 % figure applies only to the carrier probability, not disease.
Q8. A client at 24 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose challenge result of 148 mg/dL. Which next step does the nurse
anticipate?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and begin insulin therapy immediately.
B. Repeat the 1-hour screen in one week because the value is only mildly elevated.
C. Reassure the client that values under 180 mg/dL are within normal limits.
D. Schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test for definitive diagnosis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge ≥140 mg/dL (some centers use 130–135) is a positive screen that requires the diagnostic 3-hour
OGTT. It is not itself diagnostic, so insulin is not started on this result alone. Repeating the screen is not standard; the threshold
is far below 180 mg/dL.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
