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LEIK FNP Practice Questions – Family Nurse Practitioner Exam Prep 2026/2027

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LEIK FNP Practice Questions – Family Nurse Practitioner Exam Prep 2026/2027

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Practice
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FNP Practice QuestionsLEIK FNP Practice Questions!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~&&&&&&&




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FNP Practice QuestionsLEIK FNP Practice QuestionsLEIK FNP Practice Questions!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

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FNP Practice QuestionsLEIK FNP Practice Questions!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~&&&&&&&



A 72-year-old woman has been on B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness
hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg for many years to of the diuretic.
control her Stage II hypertension. Her blood pressure
(BP) at this visit is 168/96. She is currently NSAIDs and ASA inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which
complaining of pain on her right hip and on both predisposes the kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs and diuretics can cause acute
knees. She has increased her dose of ibuprofen prerenal failure by decreasing renal blood flow.
(Motrin) from 400 mg 3 times day (TID) to 800 mg
TID. She is still in pain and would like something
stronger. Which of the following statements is the
best explanation of the effects of ibuprofen (Motrin)
on her disease?

A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her
health
B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and
blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic
C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of
hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics
D) None of the statements are true


2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly D) Chlamydia trachomatis
the labia and vagina except:
Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial
A) Bacterialvaginosis vaginosis, candidiasis, and trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Candidiasis commonly affects the cervix, endometrial lining , fallopian tubes, and pelvic
C) Trichomoniasis cavity.
D) Chlamydia trachomatis


The nurse practitioner would test the obturator and B) Acute appendicitis.
iliopsoas muscle to evaluate for:
Signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include invol- untary guarding,
A) Cholecystitis rebound tenderness, boardlike abdomen, and a positive obtu- rator and
B) Acute appendicitis psoas sign. A positive obturator sign occurs when pain is elicted by internal
C) Inguinal hernia rotation of the right hip from 90 degrees hip/knee flexion. The psoas sign is
D) Gastriculcer positive when pain occurs with passive extension of the thigh while the
patient is lying on his/her side with knees extended, or when pain occurs
with active flexion of his/her thigh at the hip.


Treatment for mild preeclampsia includes all of the D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure
following except:
Recommended care for women diagnosed with preeclampsia includes bed
A) Bed rest except for bathroom privileges rest with bath- room privileges, weight and BP monitoring, and closely
B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure following urine protein and serum protein, creatinine, and platelet counts.
C) Close follow-up of urinary protein, serum Oral medications are not used as first-line treatment.
creatinine, and platelet count
D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control
blood pressure


All of the following services are covered under C) Nursing home care
Medicare Part A except:
Medicare A coverage includes inpatient hospitalization and skilled care
A) Inpatienthospitalizations given in a certified skilled nursing facility. Most nursing home care is
B) Medicines administered to a patient while custodial care (help with bathing, dressing, using a bathroom, and eating).
hospitalized This care is not covered by Medicare A.
C) Nursing home care
D) Surgeons


A 28-year-old student is seen in the school health B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
clinic with complaints of a hacking cough that is
productive of small amounts of sputum and a runny Mycoplasma pneumonia is the organism most com- monly seen in children
nose. He does not take any medications, denies any and young adults. It is easily spread from droplets, from sneezing and
allergies, and has no significant medical history. coughing, in close proximity. Diagnosis is based on symptoms and x-ray
Physical examination reveals a low-grade results of infiltrates in lower lobes.
temperature of 99.9 degrees Fahrenheit, respirations
of 16/min, a pulse of 90 beats per minute, and diffuse
fine crackles in the base of the lungs. A chest
radiograph (x-ray) shows diffuse infiltrates on the
lower lobe of the right lung. The total white blood cell
count is 10,500/uL. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A) Streptococcal pneumonia
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Acute bronchitis
D) Legionnaires disease


A 39-year-old migrant worker presents to the clinic C) 10 mm
2.5 days after a purified protein derivative (PPD) test.
What minimum size of induration would be The PPD is administered on the volar aspect of the lower arm and read 48
considered posi- tive for this patient? hours after the test is given. The PPD result must have induration and
measure 10 mm or greater to be positive in a low-risk patient. Induration
A) 3 mm B) 5 mm C) 10 mm D) 15 mm (firmness with palpation) must be present. If the site has erythema but no
induration, result would be negative. Color is not important.




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All of the following are correct statements regarding D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions
the role of the person named in a durable power of
attorney except: The person named in a durable power of attorney (the agent) is designated
by the patient to make all medical decisions, as well as any decisions
A) The agent's decisions are legally binding regarding the patient's private affairs in the event that the patient becomes
B) The agent can make decisions in other areas of incompetent and unable to make his/her own decisions. No one has the
the patient's life such as financial ability to override the agent's decision.
issues
C) The agent can decide for the patient who is on life
support when that life support
can be terminated
D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the
agent's decisions


All of the following are true statements regarding B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and
Munchausen syndrome except: denial

A) It is considered a mental illness Munchausen syndrome is a psychiatric disorder in which the patient fakes
B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an a medical illness or disorder to gain attention from health care provid- ers.
anxiety reaction and denial These patients commonly use the emergency department frequently to
C) The patient fakes an illness in order to gain gain attention.
attention from health care providers
D) The patient has an inconsistent medical history
along with a past history of
frequent hospitalizations


Which of the following antihypertensive medications C) Beta-blockers
should the nurse practitioner avoid when treating
patients with emphysema? Beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of emphysema.
Studies have shown evidence of a reduction in forced expiratory volume in
A) Calcium channel blockers 1 second (FEV1), increased airway hyperresponsiveness, and inhibition of
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors bronchodilator response to beta agonists in patients receiving non-selective
C) Beta-blockers beta- blockers and high doses of cardioselective beta-blockers.
D) Diuretics


A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over A) Perform a complete and thorough history
her chest and arms but denies difficulty swallowing
or breathing. She reports a family history of allergic Prior to prescribing medications, a complete and thorough history must be
rhinitis and asthma. Which of the following performed to determine possible causes of hives. The patient denied
interventions is most appropriate? difficulty with swallowing and breathing, so there was no medical
emergency to require calling 911.
A) Perform a complete and thorough history
B) Prescribe an oral antihistamine such as
diphenhydramine 25 mg PO QID
C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000
intramuscularly stat
D) Call 911


Which of the following findings is most likely in young B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
primigravidas with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
Common signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension include
A) Abdominal cramping and constipation edema of the face and the upper extremities, weight gain, blurred vision,
B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities elevated BP, proteinuria, and headaches.
C) Shortness of breath
D) Dysuria and frequency


Which of the following symptoms is associated with D) Tingling and numbness of both feet
B12 deficiency anemia?
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia can cause nerve cell damage if not treated.
A) Spoon-shaped nails and pica Symptoms of B12 deficiency anemia may include tingling or numbness in
B) An abnormal neurological exam fingers and toes, difficulty walking, mood changes or depression, memory
C) A vegan diet loss, disorientation, and dementia.
D) Tingling and numbness of both feet


A second triple screen on a 35-year-old primigravida A) Order an ultrasound
reveals abnormally low lev- els of the alpha
fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of human Abnormally low levels of alpha fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of
chorionic gonad- otropin. Which of the following human chorionic gonadotropin are abnormal during pregnancy. An
interventions is the best choice for this patient? ultrasound should be ordered to further evaluate the fetus for
characteristics of Down syndrome and/or fetal demise.
A) Order an ultrasound
B) Order a computed tomography (CT) scan of the
abdomen
C) Order a 24-hour urine for protein clearance
D) Assess for a history of illicit drug or alcohol use


All of the following are true statements about C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative bacte-
diverticula except: ria

A) Diverticula are located in the colon Diverticuli in the colon can be infected with both gram-negative and gram-
B) A low-fiber diet is associated with the condition positive bacteria.
C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with
gram-negative bacteria
D)
Supplementingwithfibersuchaspsyllium(Metamucil)isr
ecommended




Practice
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LEIK
Questions!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~&&&&&&&&############################@@@@@
FNP Practice QuestionsLEIK FNP Practice QuestionsLEIK FNP Practice Questions!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

,Practice
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LEIK
Questions!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~&&&&&&&&############################@@@@@
FNP Practice QuestionsLEIK FNP Practice Questions!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~&&&&&&&


Patients who are diagnosed with gonorrhea should B) Chlamydia trachomatis
also be treated for which of the following infections?
When diagnosed with gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for
A) Chancroid Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes genitalis
D) PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)


Kyphosis is a late sign of: C) Osteoporosis

A) Old age Kyphosis is a curvature of the spine that causes a rounding of the back,
B) Osteopenia which leads to a slouching posture. Severe thinning of the bones
C) Osteoporosis (osteoporosis) contributes to this curvature in the spine. Symptoms that
D) Osteoarthritis may occur with severe cases of kyphosis include difficulty breathing,
fatigue, and back pain.


A 35-year-old primigravida who is at 28 weeks of B) Higher than normal
gestation is expecting twins. What would you would
expect her alpha fetoprotein (AFP) values to be? Alpha fetoprotein is produced in the fetal and maternal liver. Higher levels
of alpha fetoprotein are commonly seen in multiple gestations due to the
A) Normal growing fetuses and enlargement of the livers.
B) Higher than normal
C) Lower than normal
D) None of the above


Which of the following antihypertensive medications A) Calcium channel blocker
has beneficial effects for an elderly White female with
osteoporosis? Calcium channel blockers act by blocking the cal- cium channels in the
heart muscle and the blood vessels, thereby keeping more calcium in the
A) Calcium channel blocker bones.
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
C) Beta-blocker
D) Diuretic


The Lachman maneuver is used to detect which of A) Knee instability
the following?
The Lachman maneuver is a test performed to assess for knee instability.
A) Knee instability Knee instability indicates a tear of the anterior cruciate ligament.
B) Nerve damage of the knee due to past knee
injuries
C) The integrity of the patellar tendon
D) Tears on the meniscus of the knee


When an adolescent male's penis grows more in B) Tanner Stage III
length than width, at which of the following Tanner
stages is he classified? Tanner Stage III in males consists of penis lengthening and darker, coarse
pubic hair, which begins to curl
A) Tanner Stage II
B) Tanner Stage III
C) Tanner Stage IV
D) Tanner Stage V


Fetal TORCH infections can cause microcephaly, A) Toxoplasmagondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and
mental retardation, hepatospleno- megaly, and herpes
intrauterine growth retardation. The acronym TORCH
stands for: The acronym TORCH stands for Toxoplasma gondii, other infections,
rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes. Although several of the conditions
A) Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, listed in the other answer options can also cause fetal problems, they are
cytomegalovirus, and herpes not included in the TORCH acronym.
B) Toxic shock syndrome, ocular infections, rubella,
cytomegalovirus, and herpes
zoster
C) Tetanus, ophthalmic infections, roseola, cancer,
and head abnormalities
D) Toxins, other infections, roseola, candidiasis, and
head abnormalities


Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection of the larynx A) Laryngeal neoplasia
has been associated with:
HPV infection of the larynx has been associated with laryngeal neoplasia;
A) Laryngeal neoplasia HPV infection of the cervix is associated with cervical cancer.
B) Esophageal stricture
C) Cervical cancer
D) Metaplasia of esophageal squamous cells


Mr. Brown is a 65-year-old carpenter complaining of C) Degenerative joint disease
morning stiffness and pain in both his hands and
right knee upon awakening. He feels some relief Heberden's nodes are commonly seen in degenerative joint disease.
after warming up. On exam, the nurse notices the Heberden's nodes are bony nodules located on the distal interphalangeal
presence of Heberden's nodes. Which of the fol- joints (DIPs).
lowing is most likely?

A) Osteoporosis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Degenerative joint disease
D) Reiter's syndrome



Practice
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~&&&&&&&&############################@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@22/2026//2027
LEIK
Questions!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~&&&&&&&&############################@@@@@
FNP Practice QuestionsLEIK FNP Practice QuestionsLEIK FNP Practice Questions!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

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