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NURS 5350 Exam 2 – Advanced Pathophysiology (2026/2027) Q&A | UT Tyler A+ Guarantee

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NURS 5350 Exam 2 Advanced Pathophysiology is a comprehensive UT Tyler study resource designed for graduate nursing students reviewing complex disease mechanisms, altered physiological processes, and clinical manifestations across major body systems. This material reinforces advanced concepts involving cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, endocrine, neurologic, hematologic, immune, and metabolic dysfunction, while connecting underlying pathophysiological changes with patient signs, symptoms, risk factors, and disease progression. What You Will Get: detailed exam-style questions and answers, high-yield NURS 5350 Exam 2 review content, essential Advanced Pathophysiology concepts, organ-system disease mechanisms, clinical manifestation interpretation, altered physiology review, systemic dysfunction concepts, and an organized study resource designed to strengthen recall, improve clinical reasoning, reinforce graduate-level nursing knowledge, identify important exam topics, and support confident Exam 2 preparation.NURS 5350 Exam 2, NURS 5350 Advanced Pathophysiology, Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 2, UT Tyler NURS 5350, NURS 5350 Q&A, NURS 5350 study guide, NURS 5350 exam prep, advanced pathophysiology questions, graduate nursing pathophysiology, cardiovascular pathophysiology review, respiratory pathophysiology nursing, renal pathophysiology study guide, endocrine pathophysiology review, neurologic disease mechanisms, systemic disease mechanisms nursing, UT Tyler nursing exam, Advanced Pathophysiology study guide, NURS 5350 practice questions#NURS5350 #NURS5350Exam2 #UTTyler #AdvancedPathophysiology #Pathophysiology #GraduateNursing #NursingStudent #DiseaseMechanisms #ClinicalReasoning #AdvancedNursing #ExamPrep #StudyGuide

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,UT Tyler NURS 5350 Exam 2 | Advanced Pathophysiology
(2026) Q&A


1. Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of atherosclerosis?

A) Chronic inflammation and lipid accumulation in the arterial intima

B) Acute vasospasm of the arterial media

C) Fibromuscular hyperplasia of the venous endothelium

D) Autoimmune destruction of the arterial adventitia



Correct Answer: Chronic inflammation and lipid accumulation in the arterial
intima



Rationale: Atherosclerosis is initiated by endothelial injury, which allows low-
density lipoprotein (LDL) to enter the intima. Macrophages engulf oxidized LDL to
become foam cells, forming fatty streaks. This process is driven by chronic
inflammation and leads to plaque formation, narrowing the arterial lumen.



2. What is the primary function of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in blood
pressure regulation?

A) To increase sodium and water retention and cause vasoconstriction

B) To decrease sympathetic nervous system activity

C) To promote potassium retention and sodium excretion

D) To stimulate vasodilation and reduce blood volume



Correct Answer: To increase sodium and water retention and cause
vasoconstriction

,Rationale: The RAAS is activated when renal perfusion decreases. Renin converts
angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by ACE.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and stimulates aldosterone release, which
promotes sodium and water retention, increasing blood pressure.



3. Which of the following is the most common cause of heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction?

A) Coronary artery disease and myocardial infarction

B) Aortic stenosis

C) Chronic hypertension

D) Viral myocarditis



Correct Answer: Coronary artery disease and myocardial infarction


Rationale: Coronary artery disease with myocardial infarction is the most common
cause of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). Ischemic damage leads
to loss of contractile myocardium and remodeling. Chronic hypertension is a more
common cause of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF).



4. A patient presents with acute onset of severe dyspnea, orthopnea, and pink frothy
sputum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Acute pulmonary embolism

B) Acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema

C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation

D) Pneumonia



Correct Answer: Acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema

, Rationale: Acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema presents
with severe dyspnea, orthopnea, and pink frothy sputum due to fluid transudation
into the alveoli. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with sudden pleuritic chest
pain and clear sputum. Pneumonia produces purulent sputum and fever.



5. Which term refers to the percentage of blood ejected from the left ventricle with
each contraction?

A) Cardiac output

B) Ejection fraction

C) Stroke volume

D) Preload



Correct Answer: Ejection fraction


Rationale: Ejection fraction is the percentage of blood in the left ventricle that is
ejected with each contraction. It is calculated as stroke volume divided by end-
diastolic volume. A normal ejection fraction is typically between 50% and 70%.
Cardiac output is the total volume pumped per minute.



6. According to the Frank-Starling law, what happens to cardiac output when preload
increases?

A) Cardiac output decreases

B) Cardiac output increases

C) Cardiac output remains unchanged

D) Cardiac output becomes independent of preload



Correct Answer: Cardiac output increases

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