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PMP Practice Test Exam – 100 Questions with
Answers and Rationale
1. A project manager is leading a software development
project. The sponsor asks for a high-level cost estimate before
the project charter is approved. Which estimating technique is
most appropriate?
A) Bottom-up estimating
B) Analogous estimating
C) Parametric estimating
D) Three-point estimating
Answer: B
Rationale: Analogous estimating uses historical data from
similar projects and is suitable for high-level estimates when
detailed information is not yet available. Bottom-up and
parametric require more detail. Three-point estimating is for
uncertainty, not early high-level estimates.
,2. During project execution, a team member reports a conflict
with another team member. What should the project manager
do first?
A) Escalate to the functional manager
B) Use a collaborative conflict resolution approach
C) Ignore it because conflicts resolve naturally
D) Reassign one team member
Answer: B
Rationale: The project manager should address conflict directly
and collaboratively. Escalation is not the first step. Ignoring or
reassigning avoids the issue and can worsen it.
3. Which document formally authorizes a project?
A) Project management plan
B) Project charter
C) Business case
D) Work breakdown structure
Answer: B
Rationale: The project charter formally authorizes the project
and gives the project manager authority. The project
management plan is developed later. The business case justifies
the project. The WBS breaks down scope.
,4. A project is behind schedule. The project manager wants to
shorten the schedule without reducing scope. Which technique
should be used?
A) Fast tracking
B) Crashing
C) Scope creep
D) Resource leveling
Answer: B
Rationale: Crashing adds resources to shorten duration, often
increasing cost. Fast tracking overlaps activities but can
increase risk. Scope creep is uncontrolled scope change.
Resource leveling may extend the schedule.
5. What is the primary purpose of a work breakdown structure?
A) To assign resources
B) To decompose project scope into manageable components
C) To create the project schedule
D) To estimate costs
Answer: B
Rationale: The WBS decomposes deliverables into smaller,
manageable work packages. Resource assignment, scheduling,
, and cost estimating use the WBS but are not its primary
purpose.
6. A project manager discovers that a vendor is not meeting
contractual quality requirements. What should the project
manager do first?
A) Terminate the contract
B) Review the contract and communicate with the vendor
C) Accept the deliverables anyway
D) Escalate to the PMO
Answer: B
Rationale: The project manager should first review contract
terms and discuss the issue with the vendor. Termination is
premature. Accepting poor quality is wrong. Escalation may
come later if resolution fails.
7. Which process involves identifying people or groups
impacted by the project and documenting their interests?
A) Plan Communications Management
B) Identify Stakeholders
C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D) Develop Project Charter
PMP Practice Test Exam – 100 Questions with
Answers and Rationale
1. A project manager is leading a software development
project. The sponsor asks for a high-level cost estimate before
the project charter is approved. Which estimating technique is
most appropriate?
A) Bottom-up estimating
B) Analogous estimating
C) Parametric estimating
D) Three-point estimating
Answer: B
Rationale: Analogous estimating uses historical data from
similar projects and is suitable for high-level estimates when
detailed information is not yet available. Bottom-up and
parametric require more detail. Three-point estimating is for
uncertainty, not early high-level estimates.
,2. During project execution, a team member reports a conflict
with another team member. What should the project manager
do first?
A) Escalate to the functional manager
B) Use a collaborative conflict resolution approach
C) Ignore it because conflicts resolve naturally
D) Reassign one team member
Answer: B
Rationale: The project manager should address conflict directly
and collaboratively. Escalation is not the first step. Ignoring or
reassigning avoids the issue and can worsen it.
3. Which document formally authorizes a project?
A) Project management plan
B) Project charter
C) Business case
D) Work breakdown structure
Answer: B
Rationale: The project charter formally authorizes the project
and gives the project manager authority. The project
management plan is developed later. The business case justifies
the project. The WBS breaks down scope.
,4. A project is behind schedule. The project manager wants to
shorten the schedule without reducing scope. Which technique
should be used?
A) Fast tracking
B) Crashing
C) Scope creep
D) Resource leveling
Answer: B
Rationale: Crashing adds resources to shorten duration, often
increasing cost. Fast tracking overlaps activities but can
increase risk. Scope creep is uncontrolled scope change.
Resource leveling may extend the schedule.
5. What is the primary purpose of a work breakdown structure?
A) To assign resources
B) To decompose project scope into manageable components
C) To create the project schedule
D) To estimate costs
Answer: B
Rationale: The WBS decomposes deliverables into smaller,
manageable work packages. Resource assignment, scheduling,
, and cost estimating use the WBS but are not its primary
purpose.
6. A project manager discovers that a vendor is not meeting
contractual quality requirements. What should the project
manager do first?
A) Terminate the contract
B) Review the contract and communicate with the vendor
C) Accept the deliverables anyway
D) Escalate to the PMO
Answer: B
Rationale: The project manager should first review contract
terms and discuss the issue with the vendor. Termination is
premature. Accepting poor quality is wrong. Escalation may
come later if resolution fails.
7. Which process involves identifying people or groups
impacted by the project and documenting their interests?
A) Plan Communications Management
B) Identify Stakeholders
C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D) Develop Project Charter
