ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING 2026/2027 – EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is reviewing preconception health with a client who plans to become
pregnant. Which supplement should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk of
neural tube defects?
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin D
D. Iron
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation before conception and during early pregnancy reduces
the risk of fetal neural tube defects. Calcium, vitamin D, and iron are important nutrients but do
not provide the same preventive effect.
2. A client asks about the purpose of genetic counseling before pregnancy. Which
response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. “It determines whether you will have a complicated pregnancy.”
B. “It guarantees that your newborn will not have a genetic disorder.”
C. “It replaces routine prenatal screening.”
D. “It helps identify inherited risks and discuss available testing options.”
Rationale: Genetic counseling helps clients understand family history, inheritance patterns,
potential risks, and available screening or diagnostic options. It cannot guarantee a specific
pregnancy outcome.
3. During an initial prenatal visit, which finding should the nurse recognize as a
presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive fetal heart rate
C. Fetal movement palpated by the examiner
,D. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound
Rationale: Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign because it can occur for reasons other than
pregnancy. Fetal heart activity, fetal movement detected by an examiner, and ultrasound
visualization are positive signs of pregnancy.
4. A pregnant client asks why the nurse measures fundal height during prenatal
visits. What is the primary purpose of this assessment?
A. Determine fetal sex
B. Identify the fetal presentation
C. Estimate fetal growth and gestational progression
D. Determine whether the client will require cesarean birth
Rationale: Serial fundal-height measurements provide an indirect assessment of uterine and fetal
growth. Abnormal measurements can prompt further evaluation for conditions such as growth
restriction, multiple gestation, or abnormal amniotic fluid volume.
5. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports persistent nausea and vomiting. Which
instruction is most appropriate?
A. Drink large amounts of fluid with meals.
B. Skip breakfast to decrease nausea.
C. Eat one large meal at the end of the day.
D. Eat small, frequent meals and avoid foods that trigger nausea.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and avoidance of nausea triggers can reduce pregnancy-
related nausea. Large meals and prolonged periods without food may worsen symptoms.
6. A pregnant client reports dizziness when lying flat on the back. Which
explanation should the nurse provide?
A. The fetus is compressing the diaphragm.
B. The enlarged uterus can compress the vena cava and reduce venous return.
C. Pregnancy causes permanent hypotension when the client is supine.
D. The placenta temporarily stops functioning in the supine position.
,Rationale: In later pregnancy, the enlarged uterus can compress the inferior vena cava when the
client is supine, reducing venous return and cardiac output. Side-lying positioning can improve
circulation.
7. Which finding during pregnancy should the nurse instruct the client to report
promptly?
A. Mild urinary frequency
B. Occasional fatigue
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Increased appetite
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy can indicate complications and requires
evaluation. Urinary frequency, fatigue, and appetite changes can occur with normal pregnancy
adaptations.
8. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about iron supplementation. Which
statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I should take the supplement with an antacid.”
B. “I should stop taking iron if my stools become dark.”
C. “I should take iron with milk to improve absorption.”
D. “I can take iron with vitamin C to improve absorption.”
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption. Iron can cause dark stools and gastrointestinal
effects, while calcium-containing products and antacids can decrease iron absorption.
9. A client at 32 weeks of gestation asks why fetal movement is monitored. What is
the primary reason?
A. To provide an indication of fetal well-being
B. To determine the exact fetal weight
C. To determine the fetal blood type
D. To predict the newborn's Apgar score
, Rationale: Changes in fetal movement can provide information about fetal well-being. A
significant decrease in movement should be evaluated according to the client's prescribed fetal-
movement monitoring instructions.
10. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected preeclampsia. Which finding is most
concerning?
A. Mild dependent ankle edema
B. Urinary frequency
C. Severe headache with visual disturbances
D. Increased appetite
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances can indicate significant hypertensive
disease and possible neurologic involvement. These findings require prompt evaluation.
11. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment
finding requires immediate nursing action?
A. Respiratory rate of 20/min
B. Warmth and flushing
C. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
D. Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression when toxicity develops. A
respiratory rate of 10/min is concerning and requires immediate assessment and intervention.
12. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being available when a client
receives magnesium sulfate therapy?
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Naloxone reverses
opioids, protamine reverses heparin, and vitamin K is used to reverse certain anticoagulant
effects.
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is reviewing preconception health with a client who plans to become
pregnant. Which supplement should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk of
neural tube defects?
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin D
D. Iron
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation before conception and during early pregnancy reduces
the risk of fetal neural tube defects. Calcium, vitamin D, and iron are important nutrients but do
not provide the same preventive effect.
2. A client asks about the purpose of genetic counseling before pregnancy. Which
response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. “It determines whether you will have a complicated pregnancy.”
B. “It guarantees that your newborn will not have a genetic disorder.”
C. “It replaces routine prenatal screening.”
D. “It helps identify inherited risks and discuss available testing options.”
Rationale: Genetic counseling helps clients understand family history, inheritance patterns,
potential risks, and available screening or diagnostic options. It cannot guarantee a specific
pregnancy outcome.
3. During an initial prenatal visit, which finding should the nurse recognize as a
presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive fetal heart rate
C. Fetal movement palpated by the examiner
,D. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound
Rationale: Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign because it can occur for reasons other than
pregnancy. Fetal heart activity, fetal movement detected by an examiner, and ultrasound
visualization are positive signs of pregnancy.
4. A pregnant client asks why the nurse measures fundal height during prenatal
visits. What is the primary purpose of this assessment?
A. Determine fetal sex
B. Identify the fetal presentation
C. Estimate fetal growth and gestational progression
D. Determine whether the client will require cesarean birth
Rationale: Serial fundal-height measurements provide an indirect assessment of uterine and fetal
growth. Abnormal measurements can prompt further evaluation for conditions such as growth
restriction, multiple gestation, or abnormal amniotic fluid volume.
5. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports persistent nausea and vomiting. Which
instruction is most appropriate?
A. Drink large amounts of fluid with meals.
B. Skip breakfast to decrease nausea.
C. Eat one large meal at the end of the day.
D. Eat small, frequent meals and avoid foods that trigger nausea.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and avoidance of nausea triggers can reduce pregnancy-
related nausea. Large meals and prolonged periods without food may worsen symptoms.
6. A pregnant client reports dizziness when lying flat on the back. Which
explanation should the nurse provide?
A. The fetus is compressing the diaphragm.
B. The enlarged uterus can compress the vena cava and reduce venous return.
C. Pregnancy causes permanent hypotension when the client is supine.
D. The placenta temporarily stops functioning in the supine position.
,Rationale: In later pregnancy, the enlarged uterus can compress the inferior vena cava when the
client is supine, reducing venous return and cardiac output. Side-lying positioning can improve
circulation.
7. Which finding during pregnancy should the nurse instruct the client to report
promptly?
A. Mild urinary frequency
B. Occasional fatigue
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Increased appetite
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy can indicate complications and requires
evaluation. Urinary frequency, fatigue, and appetite changes can occur with normal pregnancy
adaptations.
8. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about iron supplementation. Which
statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I should take the supplement with an antacid.”
B. “I should stop taking iron if my stools become dark.”
C. “I should take iron with milk to improve absorption.”
D. “I can take iron with vitamin C to improve absorption.”
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption. Iron can cause dark stools and gastrointestinal
effects, while calcium-containing products and antacids can decrease iron absorption.
9. A client at 32 weeks of gestation asks why fetal movement is monitored. What is
the primary reason?
A. To provide an indication of fetal well-being
B. To determine the exact fetal weight
C. To determine the fetal blood type
D. To predict the newborn's Apgar score
, Rationale: Changes in fetal movement can provide information about fetal well-being. A
significant decrease in movement should be evaluated according to the client's prescribed fetal-
movement monitoring instructions.
10. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected preeclampsia. Which finding is most
concerning?
A. Mild dependent ankle edema
B. Urinary frequency
C. Severe headache with visual disturbances
D. Increased appetite
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances can indicate significant hypertensive
disease and possible neurologic involvement. These findings require prompt evaluation.
11. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment
finding requires immediate nursing action?
A. Respiratory rate of 20/min
B. Warmth and flushing
C. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
D. Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression when toxicity develops. A
respiratory rate of 10/min is concerning and requires immediate assessment and intervention.
12. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being available when a client
receives magnesium sulfate therapy?
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Naloxone reverses
opioids, protamine reverses heparin, and vitamin K is used to reverse certain anticoagulant
effects.
