ATI PN Maternal-Newborn Proctored Exam Comprehensive
Questions with Answers & Detailed Rationales
ATI PN Maternal-Newborn Content Areas (Approximate Weighting):
• Antepartum (Prenatal Care & Complications) — 40%
• Intrapartum (Labor & Delivery) — 20%
• Postpartum (Recovery & Complications) — 20%
• Newborn Care (Assessment & Disorders) — 20%
Section 1: Antepartum Care (Q1–Q40)
Q1. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes in the
first trimester. Which of the following findings should the nurse
include as a normal change?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Frequent urination
D. Decreased respiratory rate
Answer: C
Rationale: Frequent urination occurs due to uterine pressure on the
bladder and increased glomerular filtration rate during pregnancy. Heart
rate typically increases, blood pressure may slightly decrease in the first
trimester, and respiratory rate may increase due to progesterone's effect.
Q2. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports nausea and vomiting.
Which of the following recommendations is most appropriate?
A. Avoid fluids with meals
B. Eat large, heavy meals
,C. Lie down immediately after eating
D. Increase fatty foods
Answer: A
Rationale: Avoiding fluids with meals helps reduce gastric distension and
may alleviate nausea. Small, frequent, low-fat meals are advised for
nausea. Lying down immediately after eating can worsen reflux. Fatty foods
should be avoided as they can trigger nausea.
Q3. A nurse is calculating a client's estimated date of delivery using
Naegele's rule. The client's last menstrual period began on May 10.
What is the estimated due date?
A. February 3
B. February 17
C. March 3
D. March 17
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule: Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual
period, then subtract 3 months. May 10 + 7 days = May 17. May 17 − 3
months = February 17.
Q4. A nurse is reviewing danger signs in pregnancy with a client.
Which of the following findings requires immediate provider
notification?
A. Mild pedal edema
B. Blurred vision
C. Braxton Hicks contractions
D. Leukorrhea
Answer: B
Rationale: Blurred vision may indicate preeclampsia and requires
immediate provider notification. Mild edema and leukorrhea (increased
,vaginal discharge) are normal findings in pregnancy. Braxton Hicks
contractions are irregular and painless.
Q5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with gestational diabetes
at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following should the nurse
recommend?
A. One-hour glucose tolerance test
B. Biophysical profile
C. Contraction stress test
D. Daily fetal movement count (kick counts)
Answer: D
Rationale: Daily fetal movement counts (kick counts) are recommended
starting at 28 weeks for clients with gestational diabetes. The one-hour
glucose tolerance test is typically performed at 24–28 weeks for screening.
Biophysical profiles and contraction stress tests are used for higher-risk
assessments.
Q6. A client at 32 weeks of gestation reports sudden, painless, bright
red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third
trimester is characteristic of placenta previa, where the placenta implants in
the lower uterus and obstructs the cervical os. Placental abruption typically
presents with painful bleeding and a rigid, tender uterus.
Q7. A client with placental abruption will most likely present with
which of the following?
, A. Painless bleeding
B. Severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness
C. No bleeding
D. Increased fetal movement
Answer: B
Rationale: Placental abruption causes painful bleeding with a firm, tender
uterus due to premature separation of the placenta. Painless bleeding is
characteristic of placenta previa.
Q8. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and
is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate 14/min
D. Magnesium level 6 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr is a sign of magnesium
toxicity as the medication is excreted by the kidneys. Deep tendon reflexes
of 2+ and a respiratory rate of 14/min are within normal limits. A
magnesium level of 6 mEq/L is within the therapeutic range for seizure
prophylaxis in preeclampsia.
Q9. A nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which
finding should the client report immediately?
A. Increased Braxton Hicks contractions
B. Low back pain that comes and goes
C. Menstrual-like cramping with diarrhea
D. Fetal movement greater than 10 per hour
Answer: C
Rationale: Menstrual-like cramping with diarrhea can indicate preterm
Questions with Answers & Detailed Rationales
ATI PN Maternal-Newborn Content Areas (Approximate Weighting):
• Antepartum (Prenatal Care & Complications) — 40%
• Intrapartum (Labor & Delivery) — 20%
• Postpartum (Recovery & Complications) — 20%
• Newborn Care (Assessment & Disorders) — 20%
Section 1: Antepartum Care (Q1–Q40)
Q1. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes in the
first trimester. Which of the following findings should the nurse
include as a normal change?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Frequent urination
D. Decreased respiratory rate
Answer: C
Rationale: Frequent urination occurs due to uterine pressure on the
bladder and increased glomerular filtration rate during pregnancy. Heart
rate typically increases, blood pressure may slightly decrease in the first
trimester, and respiratory rate may increase due to progesterone's effect.
Q2. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports nausea and vomiting.
Which of the following recommendations is most appropriate?
A. Avoid fluids with meals
B. Eat large, heavy meals
,C. Lie down immediately after eating
D. Increase fatty foods
Answer: A
Rationale: Avoiding fluids with meals helps reduce gastric distension and
may alleviate nausea. Small, frequent, low-fat meals are advised for
nausea. Lying down immediately after eating can worsen reflux. Fatty foods
should be avoided as they can trigger nausea.
Q3. A nurse is calculating a client's estimated date of delivery using
Naegele's rule. The client's last menstrual period began on May 10.
What is the estimated due date?
A. February 3
B. February 17
C. March 3
D. March 17
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule: Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual
period, then subtract 3 months. May 10 + 7 days = May 17. May 17 − 3
months = February 17.
Q4. A nurse is reviewing danger signs in pregnancy with a client.
Which of the following findings requires immediate provider
notification?
A. Mild pedal edema
B. Blurred vision
C. Braxton Hicks contractions
D. Leukorrhea
Answer: B
Rationale: Blurred vision may indicate preeclampsia and requires
immediate provider notification. Mild edema and leukorrhea (increased
,vaginal discharge) are normal findings in pregnancy. Braxton Hicks
contractions are irregular and painless.
Q5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with gestational diabetes
at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following should the nurse
recommend?
A. One-hour glucose tolerance test
B. Biophysical profile
C. Contraction stress test
D. Daily fetal movement count (kick counts)
Answer: D
Rationale: Daily fetal movement counts (kick counts) are recommended
starting at 28 weeks for clients with gestational diabetes. The one-hour
glucose tolerance test is typically performed at 24–28 weeks for screening.
Biophysical profiles and contraction stress tests are used for higher-risk
assessments.
Q6. A client at 32 weeks of gestation reports sudden, painless, bright
red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third
trimester is characteristic of placenta previa, where the placenta implants in
the lower uterus and obstructs the cervical os. Placental abruption typically
presents with painful bleeding and a rigid, tender uterus.
Q7. A client with placental abruption will most likely present with
which of the following?
, A. Painless bleeding
B. Severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness
C. No bleeding
D. Increased fetal movement
Answer: B
Rationale: Placental abruption causes painful bleeding with a firm, tender
uterus due to premature separation of the placenta. Painless bleeding is
characteristic of placenta previa.
Q8. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and
is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate 14/min
D. Magnesium level 6 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr is a sign of magnesium
toxicity as the medication is excreted by the kidneys. Deep tendon reflexes
of 2+ and a respiratory rate of 14/min are within normal limits. A
magnesium level of 6 mEq/L is within the therapeutic range for seizure
prophylaxis in preeclampsia.
Q9. A nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which
finding should the client report immediately?
A. Increased Braxton Hicks contractions
B. Low back pain that comes and goes
C. Menstrual-like cramping with diarrhea
D. Fetal movement greater than 10 per hour
Answer: C
Rationale: Menstrual-like cramping with diarrhea can indicate preterm
