UWORLD NCLEX-RN TEST 1 | 2026/2027 | COMPREHENSIVE NURSING PRACTICE REVIE…
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
UWorld NCLEX-RN Test 1 |
2026/2027 | Comprehensive
Nursing Practice Review |
Questions & Answers
(Rationales)
Verified Answers Exam Ready 101 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This comprehensive document provides 101 NCLEX-RN style questions, each accompanied
by its correct answer and a detailed rationale for immediate study. It covers a broad
spectrum of critical nursing practice scenarios, serving as an ideal resource for in-depth
review and preparation for nursing certification exams. Students can effectively utilize this
material to reinforce their understanding of key concepts and assessment strategies.
TOPICS
• Cardiovascular Emergencies & • Respiratory & Airway Management
Monitoring
• Professional Practice & Safety • Neurological & Musculoskeletal
• Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders • Maternal-Newborn & Pediatric Care
• Gastrointestinal & Genitourinary
Page 1
, E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 101
A nurse is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult at a swimming pool.
A bystander brings the automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse notes that the
victim is wet and wearing a transdermal medication patch on the upper right chest. Which
action is appropriate?
1. Continue compressions while the AED analyzes the client's heart rhythm
2.Do not use the AED and continue CPR until paramedics arrive
3.Place the AED pad on the opposite side of the transdermal patch
4.Remove the transdermal patch and wipe the chest before applying AED pads
RESPONSE
Cardiac arrests require prompt use of an automated external defibrillator (AED), if available,
because evidence shows that early defibrillation is associated with increased cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR) success. An AED is a portable device that administers an electric shock to
attempt restoration of normal cardiac electrical activity during cardiac arrest when used with
other resuscitative measures (eg, chest compressions, medication).
To maximize the effectiveness of shock(s) administered by an AED and increase safety to those
providing aid, the client's chests should be dry, free of residue, and cleaned of any barriers to
conduction (eg, chest hair, transdermal patches) (Option 4).
(Option 1) When the AED announces that it is ready for rhythm analysis, compressions are
paused and rescuers are to remain clear of the client. The AED will then dictate if a shock is
needed, or if CPR should be resumed.
(Option 2) The AED should be turned on and AED pads applied as soon as it is available; its use
should not be delayed.
(Option 3) AED pads should not be placed over medication patches because this interferes
with conduction and can burn the skin and would not be effective if placed on the opposite
side. The transdermal patch should be removed and any residue wiped away before placing the
appropriate pad on the right side of the chest.
Educational objective:An automated external defibrillator (AED) is used as soon as possible for
improved cardiopulmonary resuscitation outcomes. Transdermal patches should be removed,
and the chest wiped to promote AED pad adherence and prevent burns.
Page 2
, Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 101
The nurse in the cardiac intensive care unit receives report on 4 clients. Which client should
the nurse assess first?
1) Client who is receiving IV antibiotics for infective endocarditis with a temperature of 101.5
F (38.6 C)
2) Client who underwent coronary artery stent placement via femoral approach 3 hours ago
and is reporting severe back pain
3) Client who underwent coronary bypass graft surgery 3 days ago and has swelling in the
leg used for the donor graft
4) Client who underwent heart transplantation 2 months ago with sustained sinus
tachycardia of 110/min at rest.
RESPONSE
A client who undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and intracoronary stent
placement using the femoral approach is at increased risk for retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Administration of antithrombotic drugs before, during, and after PCI can exacerbate
potentially life-threatening bleeding from the femoral artery.
Hypotension, back pain, flank ecchymosis (eg, Grey Turner sign), hematoma formation, and
diminished distal pulses can be early signs of bleeding into the retroperitoneal space and
require immediate intervention (eg, notify health care provider, serial complete blood count, CT
scan of the abdomen) (Option 2).
(Option 1) Infective endocarditis is often associated with cardiac valve disease and requires
long-term antibiotic therapy (4-6 weeks). Characteristic manifestations include fever, myalgia,
chills, joint pain, anorexia, and petechiae.
(Option 3) Some clients notice swelling in the leg used for donor venous graft (interruption of
blood flow). Elevating the leg and wearing compression stockings can help decrease
symptoms.
(Option 4) During heart transplantation, the donor heart is cut off from the autonomic nervous
system (denervated), altering the heart rate during rest and exercise after the procedure. The
heart rate of the transplanted heart is expected to be at the high end of normal or tachycardic
(eg, 90-110/min).
Educational objective:Percutaneous coronary intervention via the femoral approach places the
client at increased risk for retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can be exacerbated by
antithrombotic drugs. Back pain, hypotension, flank ecchymosis (eg, Grey Turner sign),
hematoma formation, and diminished distal pulses can be early signs of bleeding into the
retroperitoneal space and require immediate intervention.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 101
The nurse in the emergency department is assessing telemetry strips for assigned clients.
Which client tracing is a priority for the nurse to assess?
Page 3
, RESPONSE
An ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) occurs when at least one of the
coronary arteries is completely occluded. The ST segment is the portion of the ECG between
the QRS complex and the T wave. Prompt treatment (eg, percutaneous coronary intervention,
thrombolytics) is needed to restore myocardial oxygen supply and limit myocardial damage
(Option 3).
(Option 1) Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with P waves
replaced by fibrillatory waves, resulting in ineffective atrial contraction. Clients are at increased
risk for clot formation (long-term), which can cause a stroke or pulmonary embolism; however,
signs of cardiac injury take priority.
(Option 2) First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval. Clients are
usually asymptomatic and do not require immediate assessment.
(Option 4) Premature ventricular contractions are early contractions of the ventricles that
originate from an ectopic focus and result in a wide, distorted QRS complex. They are usually
not harmful and can occur as a response to stimulants (eg, caffeine, nicotine, alcohol) or
electrolyte imbalances.
Educational objective:An ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction occurs when at least one
of the coronary arteries is completely occluded; it is characterized by elevation of the ST
segment. Prompt treatment (eg, percutaneous coronary intervention, thrombolytics) restores
myocardial oxygen and limits myocardial injury.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 101
The nurse hears various alarms sounding from different client rooms. Which alarm should
they address first?
1)
Page 4
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
UWorld NCLEX-RN Test 1 |
2026/2027 | Comprehensive
Nursing Practice Review |
Questions & Answers
(Rationales)
Verified Answers Exam Ready 101 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This comprehensive document provides 101 NCLEX-RN style questions, each accompanied
by its correct answer and a detailed rationale for immediate study. It covers a broad
spectrum of critical nursing practice scenarios, serving as an ideal resource for in-depth
review and preparation for nursing certification exams. Students can effectively utilize this
material to reinforce their understanding of key concepts and assessment strategies.
TOPICS
• Cardiovascular Emergencies & • Respiratory & Airway Management
Monitoring
• Professional Practice & Safety • Neurological & Musculoskeletal
• Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders • Maternal-Newborn & Pediatric Care
• Gastrointestinal & Genitourinary
Page 1
, E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 101
A nurse is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult at a swimming pool.
A bystander brings the automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse notes that the
victim is wet and wearing a transdermal medication patch on the upper right chest. Which
action is appropriate?
1. Continue compressions while the AED analyzes the client's heart rhythm
2.Do not use the AED and continue CPR until paramedics arrive
3.Place the AED pad on the opposite side of the transdermal patch
4.Remove the transdermal patch and wipe the chest before applying AED pads
RESPONSE
Cardiac arrests require prompt use of an automated external defibrillator (AED), if available,
because evidence shows that early defibrillation is associated with increased cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR) success. An AED is a portable device that administers an electric shock to
attempt restoration of normal cardiac electrical activity during cardiac arrest when used with
other resuscitative measures (eg, chest compressions, medication).
To maximize the effectiveness of shock(s) administered by an AED and increase safety to those
providing aid, the client's chests should be dry, free of residue, and cleaned of any barriers to
conduction (eg, chest hair, transdermal patches) (Option 4).
(Option 1) When the AED announces that it is ready for rhythm analysis, compressions are
paused and rescuers are to remain clear of the client. The AED will then dictate if a shock is
needed, or if CPR should be resumed.
(Option 2) The AED should be turned on and AED pads applied as soon as it is available; its use
should not be delayed.
(Option 3) AED pads should not be placed over medication patches because this interferes
with conduction and can burn the skin and would not be effective if placed on the opposite
side. The transdermal patch should be removed and any residue wiped away before placing the
appropriate pad on the right side of the chest.
Educational objective:An automated external defibrillator (AED) is used as soon as possible for
improved cardiopulmonary resuscitation outcomes. Transdermal patches should be removed,
and the chest wiped to promote AED pad adherence and prevent burns.
Page 2
, Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 101
The nurse in the cardiac intensive care unit receives report on 4 clients. Which client should
the nurse assess first?
1) Client who is receiving IV antibiotics for infective endocarditis with a temperature of 101.5
F (38.6 C)
2) Client who underwent coronary artery stent placement via femoral approach 3 hours ago
and is reporting severe back pain
3) Client who underwent coronary bypass graft surgery 3 days ago and has swelling in the
leg used for the donor graft
4) Client who underwent heart transplantation 2 months ago with sustained sinus
tachycardia of 110/min at rest.
RESPONSE
A client who undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and intracoronary stent
placement using the femoral approach is at increased risk for retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Administration of antithrombotic drugs before, during, and after PCI can exacerbate
potentially life-threatening bleeding from the femoral artery.
Hypotension, back pain, flank ecchymosis (eg, Grey Turner sign), hematoma formation, and
diminished distal pulses can be early signs of bleeding into the retroperitoneal space and
require immediate intervention (eg, notify health care provider, serial complete blood count, CT
scan of the abdomen) (Option 2).
(Option 1) Infective endocarditis is often associated with cardiac valve disease and requires
long-term antibiotic therapy (4-6 weeks). Characteristic manifestations include fever, myalgia,
chills, joint pain, anorexia, and petechiae.
(Option 3) Some clients notice swelling in the leg used for donor venous graft (interruption of
blood flow). Elevating the leg and wearing compression stockings can help decrease
symptoms.
(Option 4) During heart transplantation, the donor heart is cut off from the autonomic nervous
system (denervated), altering the heart rate during rest and exercise after the procedure. The
heart rate of the transplanted heart is expected to be at the high end of normal or tachycardic
(eg, 90-110/min).
Educational objective:Percutaneous coronary intervention via the femoral approach places the
client at increased risk for retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can be exacerbated by
antithrombotic drugs. Back pain, hypotension, flank ecchymosis (eg, Grey Turner sign),
hematoma formation, and diminished distal pulses can be early signs of bleeding into the
retroperitoneal space and require immediate intervention.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 101
The nurse in the emergency department is assessing telemetry strips for assigned clients.
Which client tracing is a priority for the nurse to assess?
Page 3
, RESPONSE
An ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) occurs when at least one of the
coronary arteries is completely occluded. The ST segment is the portion of the ECG between
the QRS complex and the T wave. Prompt treatment (eg, percutaneous coronary intervention,
thrombolytics) is needed to restore myocardial oxygen supply and limit myocardial damage
(Option 3).
(Option 1) Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with P waves
replaced by fibrillatory waves, resulting in ineffective atrial contraction. Clients are at increased
risk for clot formation (long-term), which can cause a stroke or pulmonary embolism; however,
signs of cardiac injury take priority.
(Option 2) First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval. Clients are
usually asymptomatic and do not require immediate assessment.
(Option 4) Premature ventricular contractions are early contractions of the ventricles that
originate from an ectopic focus and result in a wide, distorted QRS complex. They are usually
not harmful and can occur as a response to stimulants (eg, caffeine, nicotine, alcohol) or
electrolyte imbalances.
Educational objective:An ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction occurs when at least one
of the coronary arteries is completely occluded; it is characterized by elevation of the ST
segment. Prompt treatment (eg, percutaneous coronary intervention, thrombolytics) restores
myocardial oxygen and limits myocardial injury.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 101
The nurse hears various alarms sounding from different client rooms. Which alarm should
they address first?
1)
Page 4
