ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam
2026–2027 | 300 Practice Questions with
Answers & Rationales | Comprehensive
Review and Study Guide
Below is an original practice question bank designed around common RN maternal-
newborn learning objectives. It is not a reproduction of ATI's secure proctored exam.
Questions 1–300
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 10 weeks of gestation. Which finding should the
nurse recognize as a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Fetal heart tones detected by Doppler
D. Breast tenderness
Answer: C. Fetal heart tones detected by Doppler
Rationale: Fetal heart activity is a positive sign because it directly confirms the
presence of a fetus. Amenorrhea, breast changes, and a positive pregnancy test are
presumptive or probable signs.
2. A client who is 8 weeks pregnant reports morning nausea. Which instruction should
the nurse provide?
A. Eat three large meals daily.
B. Drink fluids only with meals.
C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed.
D. Avoid eating carbohydrates.
Answer: C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and dry foods before rising can help reduce
pregnancy-related nausea.
, 3. Which nutrient is especially important before conception and during early
pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects?
A. Calcium
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B. Folic acid
Rationale: Adequate folic acid before conception and during early pregnancy reduces
the risk of fetal neural tube defects.
4. A pregnant client asks why iron supplementation is prescribed. Which response is
appropriate?
A. “Iron prevents gestational diabetes.”
B. “Iron supports increased maternal red blood cell production.”
C. “Iron prevents fetal respiratory distress.”
D. “Iron decreases maternal blood pressure.”
Answer: B. Iron supports increased maternal red blood cell production.
Rationale: Maternal blood volume increases during pregnancy, increasing the need for
iron to support hemoglobin and red blood cell production.
5. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about avoiding toxoplasmosis. Which
instruction is appropriate?
A. Avoid pasteurized dairy products.
B. Avoid all cooked vegetables.
C. Avoid handling cat litter when possible.
D. Avoid drinking bottled water.
Answer: C. Avoid handling cat litter when possible.
Rationale: Cat feces can contain Toxoplasma gondii. Pregnant clients should avoid cat
litter or use appropriate protective measures.
6. Which finding is commonly associated with pregnancy?
A. Decreased urinary frequency during the first trimester
B. Increased urinary frequency
C. Persistent hypothermia
D. Decreased blood volume
Answer: B. Increased urinary frequency
Rationale: Hormonal changes and pressure from the enlarging uterus commonly
increase urinary frequency during pregnancy.
, 7. A pregnant client asks when fetal movement is usually first perceived. Which
response is appropriate?
A. “Around 4 weeks.”
B. “Around 8 weeks.”
C. “Around 16 to 20 weeks.”
D. “Around 30 to 34 weeks.”
Answer: C. Around 16 to 20 weeks.
Rationale: Fetal movement, often called quickening, is commonly perceived around
16 to 20 weeks, although timing varies.
8. Which medication should the nurse question for a pregnant client?
A. Prenatal vitamin
B. Folic acid
C. Isotretinoin
D. Acetaminophen at recommended doses
Answer: C. Isotretinoin
Rationale: Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic and is contraindicated during pregnancy.
9. A client asks about exercise during an uncomplicated pregnancy. Which activity is
generally appropriate?
A. Contact football
B. Scuba diving
C. Moderate walking
D. High-risk competitive skiing
Answer: C. Moderate walking
Rationale: Moderate activity such as walking is generally appropriate during an
uncomplicated pregnancy unless contraindicated by the provider.
10. Which assessment finding during pregnancy requires prompt evaluation?
A. Mild nausea
B. Urinary frequency
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Breast tenderness
Answer: C. Vaginal bleeding
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy can indicate complications and should
be evaluated.
, 11. A client at 24 weeks of gestation asks about the purpose of a glucose screening test.
The nurse should explain that it is used to screen for:
A. Preeclampsia
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Rh incompatibility
D. Placental abruption
Answer: B. Gestational diabetes
Rationale: Glucose screening during pregnancy is used to identify clients who may
have gestational diabetes.
12. Which finding is most concerning in a pregnant client with possible preeclampsia?
A. Mild ankle edema
B. Persistent severe headache
C. Increased appetite
D. Mild urinary frequency
Answer: B. Persistent severe headache
Rationale: A persistent severe headache can indicate severe features of hypertensive
disease and requires prompt evaluation.
13. A pregnant client reports seeing flashing lights and having severe epigastric pain.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Normal pregnancy discomfort
B. Preeclampsia with severe features
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Round ligament pain
Answer: B. Preeclampsia with severe features
Rationale: Visual disturbances and severe epigastric or right-upper-quadrant pain are
concerning findings associated with severe preeclampsia.
14. Which blood pressure finding in pregnancy is concerning?
A. 100/60 mm Hg
B. 110/70 mm Hg
C. 118/72 mm Hg
D. 160/110 mm Hg
Answer: D. 160/110 mm Hg
Rationale: Severe-range blood pressure requires immediate clinical evaluation and
management.
2026–2027 | 300 Practice Questions with
Answers & Rationales | Comprehensive
Review and Study Guide
Below is an original practice question bank designed around common RN maternal-
newborn learning objectives. It is not a reproduction of ATI's secure proctored exam.
Questions 1–300
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 10 weeks of gestation. Which finding should the
nurse recognize as a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Fetal heart tones detected by Doppler
D. Breast tenderness
Answer: C. Fetal heart tones detected by Doppler
Rationale: Fetal heart activity is a positive sign because it directly confirms the
presence of a fetus. Amenorrhea, breast changes, and a positive pregnancy test are
presumptive or probable signs.
2. A client who is 8 weeks pregnant reports morning nausea. Which instruction should
the nurse provide?
A. Eat three large meals daily.
B. Drink fluids only with meals.
C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed.
D. Avoid eating carbohydrates.
Answer: C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and dry foods before rising can help reduce
pregnancy-related nausea.
, 3. Which nutrient is especially important before conception and during early
pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects?
A. Calcium
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B. Folic acid
Rationale: Adequate folic acid before conception and during early pregnancy reduces
the risk of fetal neural tube defects.
4. A pregnant client asks why iron supplementation is prescribed. Which response is
appropriate?
A. “Iron prevents gestational diabetes.”
B. “Iron supports increased maternal red blood cell production.”
C. “Iron prevents fetal respiratory distress.”
D. “Iron decreases maternal blood pressure.”
Answer: B. Iron supports increased maternal red blood cell production.
Rationale: Maternal blood volume increases during pregnancy, increasing the need for
iron to support hemoglobin and red blood cell production.
5. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about avoiding toxoplasmosis. Which
instruction is appropriate?
A. Avoid pasteurized dairy products.
B. Avoid all cooked vegetables.
C. Avoid handling cat litter when possible.
D. Avoid drinking bottled water.
Answer: C. Avoid handling cat litter when possible.
Rationale: Cat feces can contain Toxoplasma gondii. Pregnant clients should avoid cat
litter or use appropriate protective measures.
6. Which finding is commonly associated with pregnancy?
A. Decreased urinary frequency during the first trimester
B. Increased urinary frequency
C. Persistent hypothermia
D. Decreased blood volume
Answer: B. Increased urinary frequency
Rationale: Hormonal changes and pressure from the enlarging uterus commonly
increase urinary frequency during pregnancy.
, 7. A pregnant client asks when fetal movement is usually first perceived. Which
response is appropriate?
A. “Around 4 weeks.”
B. “Around 8 weeks.”
C. “Around 16 to 20 weeks.”
D. “Around 30 to 34 weeks.”
Answer: C. Around 16 to 20 weeks.
Rationale: Fetal movement, often called quickening, is commonly perceived around
16 to 20 weeks, although timing varies.
8. Which medication should the nurse question for a pregnant client?
A. Prenatal vitamin
B. Folic acid
C. Isotretinoin
D. Acetaminophen at recommended doses
Answer: C. Isotretinoin
Rationale: Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic and is contraindicated during pregnancy.
9. A client asks about exercise during an uncomplicated pregnancy. Which activity is
generally appropriate?
A. Contact football
B. Scuba diving
C. Moderate walking
D. High-risk competitive skiing
Answer: C. Moderate walking
Rationale: Moderate activity such as walking is generally appropriate during an
uncomplicated pregnancy unless contraindicated by the provider.
10. Which assessment finding during pregnancy requires prompt evaluation?
A. Mild nausea
B. Urinary frequency
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Breast tenderness
Answer: C. Vaginal bleeding
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy can indicate complications and should
be evaluated.
, 11. A client at 24 weeks of gestation asks about the purpose of a glucose screening test.
The nurse should explain that it is used to screen for:
A. Preeclampsia
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Rh incompatibility
D. Placental abruption
Answer: B. Gestational diabetes
Rationale: Glucose screening during pregnancy is used to identify clients who may
have gestational diabetes.
12. Which finding is most concerning in a pregnant client with possible preeclampsia?
A. Mild ankle edema
B. Persistent severe headache
C. Increased appetite
D. Mild urinary frequency
Answer: B. Persistent severe headache
Rationale: A persistent severe headache can indicate severe features of hypertensive
disease and requires prompt evaluation.
13. A pregnant client reports seeing flashing lights and having severe epigastric pain.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Normal pregnancy discomfort
B. Preeclampsia with severe features
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Round ligament pain
Answer: B. Preeclampsia with severe features
Rationale: Visual disturbances and severe epigastric or right-upper-quadrant pain are
concerning findings associated with severe preeclampsia.
14. Which blood pressure finding in pregnancy is concerning?
A. 100/60 mm Hg
B. 110/70 mm Hg
C. 118/72 mm Hg
D. 160/110 mm Hg
Answer: D. 160/110 mm Hg
Rationale: Severe-range blood pressure requires immediate clinical evaluation and
management.
