AHA ACLS Written Test Version C 2026 Questions and Answers
2026/2027 (Verified Answers by Expert) Actual Exam 2026/2027 |
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Basic Life Support and High-Quality CPR
Q1: A 65-year-old man collapses in the hospital lobby. You arrive to find him unresponsive
with no normal breathing. What is your immediate next action?
A. Check for a carotid pulse for up to 10 seconds.
B. Begin high-quality chest compressions immediately. [CORRECT]
C. Retrieve the nearest AED before touching the patient.
D. Deliver two rescue breaths to assess for chest rise.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is to begin high-quality chest compressions immediately. In an
unresponsive patient with no normal breathing, activating the emergency response system
and starting compressions takes priority over prolonged pulse checks or delaying for an AED.
Q2: During adult CPR, what is the recommended minimum depth for chest compressions?
A. At least 1.5 inches (4 cm)
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm) [CORRECT]
C. Exactly 2.5 inches (6 cm)
D. At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because current guidelines mandate a compression depth
of at least 2 inches (5 cm) for adults to generate adequate intrathoracic pressure and
coronary perfusion. Compressing deeper than 2.4 inches should be avoided to prevent
injury.
Q3: You are performing CPR on an adult patient. What is the target compression rate to
ensure high-quality resuscitation?
A. 80 to 100 compressions per minute
B. 100 to 120 compressions per minute [CORRECT]
C. 120 to 140 compressions per minute
D. As fast as physically possible
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute
optimizes cardiac output without compromising chest recoil or allowing excessive fatigue.
Rates outside this window are associated with decreased survival.
Q4: To maximize the chances of return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), what should the
chest compression fraction (CCF) be during a cardiac arrest?
, A. At least 40%
B. At least 60% [CORRECT]
C. Exactly 50%
D. As low as possible to allow for ventilation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is at least 60%, though aiming for 80% or higher is ideal. High
compression fraction ensures continuous blood flow to the heart and brain, which is a
critical determinant of survival.
Q5: A resuscitation team has been performing CPR for 2 minutes. What is the most
appropriate action regarding the chest compressor?
A. Continue with the same compressor for another 4 minutes to maintain rhythm.
B. Switch compressors every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and maintain quality. [CORRECT]
C. Pause compressions for 15 seconds to check the patient's pupil response.
D. Reduce the compression depth to 1.5 inches to conserve the compressor's energy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because compressor fatigue sets in quickly, leading to
shallow compressions and inadequate rates. Switching every 2 minutes, ideally during a
rhythm check, maintains high-quality CPR.
Q6: You are preparing to use an AED on a patient in cardiac arrest and notice a transdermal
medication patch on the upper right chest, exactly where the pad should go. What should
you do?
A. Place the AED pad directly over the medication patch.
B. Remove the patch, wipe the area clean, and apply the pad. [CORRECT]
C. Place the AED pad on the patient's lower abdomen instead.
D. Delay defibrillation until emergency medical services remove the patch.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is to remove the patch and wipe the skin. Medication patches
can block electrical current, reduce defibrillation efficacy, and potentially ignite or cause skin
burns during a shock.
Q7: A patient has a palpable carotid pulse but is not breathing adequately. What is the
appropriate rescue breathing rate for this adult patient?
A. 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds (12 to 20 breaths/min)
B. 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) [CORRECT]
C. 1 breath every 10 seconds (6 breaths/min)
D. Continuous bag-mask ventilation without pausing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with current guidelines for a patient with a pulse but inadequate
breathing. Delivering 1 breath every 6 seconds provides adequate ventilation while
minimizing the risk of gastric inflation and decreased venous return.
Q8: Why is allowing full chest recoil between compressions critically important during CPR?
A. It prevents rib fractures in the patient.
B. It allows the heart to refill with blood, maximizing venous return. [CORRECT]
C. It ensures the AED can accurately analyze the rhythm.
2026/2027 (Verified Answers by Expert) Actual Exam 2026/2027 |
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Basic Life Support and High-Quality CPR
Q1: A 65-year-old man collapses in the hospital lobby. You arrive to find him unresponsive
with no normal breathing. What is your immediate next action?
A. Check for a carotid pulse for up to 10 seconds.
B. Begin high-quality chest compressions immediately. [CORRECT]
C. Retrieve the nearest AED before touching the patient.
D. Deliver two rescue breaths to assess for chest rise.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is to begin high-quality chest compressions immediately. In an
unresponsive patient with no normal breathing, activating the emergency response system
and starting compressions takes priority over prolonged pulse checks or delaying for an AED.
Q2: During adult CPR, what is the recommended minimum depth for chest compressions?
A. At least 1.5 inches (4 cm)
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm) [CORRECT]
C. Exactly 2.5 inches (6 cm)
D. At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because current guidelines mandate a compression depth
of at least 2 inches (5 cm) for adults to generate adequate intrathoracic pressure and
coronary perfusion. Compressing deeper than 2.4 inches should be avoided to prevent
injury.
Q3: You are performing CPR on an adult patient. What is the target compression rate to
ensure high-quality resuscitation?
A. 80 to 100 compressions per minute
B. 100 to 120 compressions per minute [CORRECT]
C. 120 to 140 compressions per minute
D. As fast as physically possible
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute
optimizes cardiac output without compromising chest recoil or allowing excessive fatigue.
Rates outside this window are associated with decreased survival.
Q4: To maximize the chances of return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), what should the
chest compression fraction (CCF) be during a cardiac arrest?
, A. At least 40%
B. At least 60% [CORRECT]
C. Exactly 50%
D. As low as possible to allow for ventilation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is at least 60%, though aiming for 80% or higher is ideal. High
compression fraction ensures continuous blood flow to the heart and brain, which is a
critical determinant of survival.
Q5: A resuscitation team has been performing CPR for 2 minutes. What is the most
appropriate action regarding the chest compressor?
A. Continue with the same compressor for another 4 minutes to maintain rhythm.
B. Switch compressors every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and maintain quality. [CORRECT]
C. Pause compressions for 15 seconds to check the patient's pupil response.
D. Reduce the compression depth to 1.5 inches to conserve the compressor's energy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because compressor fatigue sets in quickly, leading to
shallow compressions and inadequate rates. Switching every 2 minutes, ideally during a
rhythm check, maintains high-quality CPR.
Q6: You are preparing to use an AED on a patient in cardiac arrest and notice a transdermal
medication patch on the upper right chest, exactly where the pad should go. What should
you do?
A. Place the AED pad directly over the medication patch.
B. Remove the patch, wipe the area clean, and apply the pad. [CORRECT]
C. Place the AED pad on the patient's lower abdomen instead.
D. Delay defibrillation until emergency medical services remove the patch.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is to remove the patch and wipe the skin. Medication patches
can block electrical current, reduce defibrillation efficacy, and potentially ignite or cause skin
burns during a shock.
Q7: A patient has a palpable carotid pulse but is not breathing adequately. What is the
appropriate rescue breathing rate for this adult patient?
A. 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds (12 to 20 breaths/min)
B. 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) [CORRECT]
C. 1 breath every 10 seconds (6 breaths/min)
D. Continuous bag-mask ventilation without pausing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with current guidelines for a patient with a pulse but inadequate
breathing. Delivering 1 breath every 6 seconds provides adequate ventilation while
minimizing the risk of gastric inflation and decreased venous return.
Q8: Why is allowing full chest recoil between compressions critically important during CPR?
A. It prevents rib fractures in the patient.
B. It allows the heart to refill with blood, maximizing venous return. [CORRECT]
C. It ensures the AED can accurately analyze the rhythm.
