ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM
2026/2027 – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A |
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A client who is 10 weeks pregnant asks why folic acid is emphasized during early
pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. It prevents gestational hypertension throughout pregnancy.
B. It promotes adequate maternal iron stores.
C. It reduces the risk of fetal neural tube defects.
D. It prevents excessive weight gain during pregnancy.
Rationale: Folic acid is particularly important before conception and during early pregnancy
because adequate intake reduces the risk of fetal neural tube defects. Iron supports maternal and
fetal erythropoiesis, but it does not provide the primary preventive effect described.
2. A nurse is assessing a client at the first prenatal visit. Which finding is most
useful for establishing the expected date of birth?
A. The first day of the client's last menstrual period
B. The date fetal movement was first perceived
C. The date the pregnancy test became positive
D. The client's estimated date of conception
Rationale: The first day of the last menstrual period is traditionally used to calculate the
estimated date of birth when the menstrual history is reliable. Other findings can provide
supporting information but are less standardized for initial dating.
3. During a prenatal examination, the nurse measures the client's fundal height. At
approximately 20 weeks of gestation, which finding is expected?
A. The fundus is at the symphysis pubis.
B. The fundus is halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus.
C. The fundus is just below the xiphoid process.
D. The fundus is approximately at the level of the umbilicus.
,Rationale: Around 20 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus generally reaches the level of the
umbilicus. Fundal height in centimeters after approximately 20 weeks often roughly corresponds
to gestational age, although clinical circumstances can affect the measurement.
4. A pregnant client reports nausea that is most pronounced in the morning. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Drink a large glass of water immediately after waking.
B. Skip breakfast until the nausea subsides.
C. Eat a few crackers or another dry food before getting out of bed.
D. Consume a large, high-fat meal before sleeping.
Rationale: Small amounts of dry food before rising can help reduce pregnancy-related nausea.
Large meals, high-fat foods, and an empty stomach can worsen nausea for some clients.
5. A client at 28 weeks of gestation asks about fetal movement. Which statement
should the nurse recognize as most appropriate?
A. Fetal movement should stop temporarily because fetal growth is slowing.
B. Regular fetal movement is an important indicator of fetal well-being.
C. Fetal movement is unrelated to fetal oxygenation.
D. The client should expect movement to disappear during the third trimester.
Rationale: Fetal movement provides useful information about fetal activity and well-being. A
noticeable decrease or significant change from the established pattern should be evaluated
rather than assumed to be normal.
6. A pregnant client is undergoing an assessment for gestational diabetes. Which
physiologic change of pregnancy contributes to increased insulin resistance?
A. Decreased placental hormone production
B. Increased maternal insulin sensitivity
C. Reduced fetal glucose requirements
D. Placental hormones that antagonize insulin action
,Rationale: Placental hormones, including human placental lactogen, contribute to maternal
insulin resistance as pregnancy progresses. This helps make more glucose available to the fetus
but can contribute to gestational diabetes when maternal insulin production cannot compensate.
7. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about iron supplementation. Which food is
an appropriate dietary source of iron?
A. Lean red meat
B. Applesauce
C. White rice
D. Lettuce
Rationale: Lean red meat provides heme iron, which is relatively well absorbed. Iron can also be
obtained from legumes, fortified grains, and certain leafy vegetables, although nonheme iron is
generally less readily absorbed.
8. A client at 34 weeks of gestation reports a severe headache accompanied by
blurred vision and epigastric discomfort. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
B. Recommend increasing oral fluids.
C. Assess the client's blood pressure and other signs of preeclampsia.
D. Explain that these symptoms commonly occur late in pregnancy.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric or right-upper-quadrant
discomfort are concerning manifestations of severe hypertensive disease of pregnancy. Prompt
assessment, including blood pressure measurement and evaluation for additional complications,
is indicated.
9. A pregnant client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which
finding requires immediate attention?
A. Respiratory rate of 18/min
B. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
C. Patellar reflexes of 2+
D. Respiratory rate of 10/min
, Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression when serum levels become
excessive. A respiratory rate of 10/min is concerning for magnesium toxicity and requires
immediate intervention and evaluation.
10. A nurse is caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate having available as the antidote for
magnesium toxicity?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Oxytocin
C. Terbutaline
D. Methylergonovine
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is used to counteract the effects of magnesium toxicity. Oxytocin
and methylergonovine are uterotonic medications, while terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic
medication used in selected obstetric situations.
11. A client at 32 weeks of gestation has painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding. Which
condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding in the
second half of pregnancy. Abruptio placentae more commonly causes painful bleeding
associated with uterine tenderness or increased tone.
12. A client with suspected placenta previa is admitted with vaginal bleeding. Which
action should the nurse avoid?
A. Monitoring maternal vital signs
B. Assessing fetal heart rate
C. Monitoring the amount of vaginal bleeding
D. Performing a digital vaginal examination
2026/2027 – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A |
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A client who is 10 weeks pregnant asks why folic acid is emphasized during early
pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. It prevents gestational hypertension throughout pregnancy.
B. It promotes adequate maternal iron stores.
C. It reduces the risk of fetal neural tube defects.
D. It prevents excessive weight gain during pregnancy.
Rationale: Folic acid is particularly important before conception and during early pregnancy
because adequate intake reduces the risk of fetal neural tube defects. Iron supports maternal and
fetal erythropoiesis, but it does not provide the primary preventive effect described.
2. A nurse is assessing a client at the first prenatal visit. Which finding is most
useful for establishing the expected date of birth?
A. The first day of the client's last menstrual period
B. The date fetal movement was first perceived
C. The date the pregnancy test became positive
D. The client's estimated date of conception
Rationale: The first day of the last menstrual period is traditionally used to calculate the
estimated date of birth when the menstrual history is reliable. Other findings can provide
supporting information but are less standardized for initial dating.
3. During a prenatal examination, the nurse measures the client's fundal height. At
approximately 20 weeks of gestation, which finding is expected?
A. The fundus is at the symphysis pubis.
B. The fundus is halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus.
C. The fundus is just below the xiphoid process.
D. The fundus is approximately at the level of the umbilicus.
,Rationale: Around 20 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus generally reaches the level of the
umbilicus. Fundal height in centimeters after approximately 20 weeks often roughly corresponds
to gestational age, although clinical circumstances can affect the measurement.
4. A pregnant client reports nausea that is most pronounced in the morning. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Drink a large glass of water immediately after waking.
B. Skip breakfast until the nausea subsides.
C. Eat a few crackers or another dry food before getting out of bed.
D. Consume a large, high-fat meal before sleeping.
Rationale: Small amounts of dry food before rising can help reduce pregnancy-related nausea.
Large meals, high-fat foods, and an empty stomach can worsen nausea for some clients.
5. A client at 28 weeks of gestation asks about fetal movement. Which statement
should the nurse recognize as most appropriate?
A. Fetal movement should stop temporarily because fetal growth is slowing.
B. Regular fetal movement is an important indicator of fetal well-being.
C. Fetal movement is unrelated to fetal oxygenation.
D. The client should expect movement to disappear during the third trimester.
Rationale: Fetal movement provides useful information about fetal activity and well-being. A
noticeable decrease or significant change from the established pattern should be evaluated
rather than assumed to be normal.
6. A pregnant client is undergoing an assessment for gestational diabetes. Which
physiologic change of pregnancy contributes to increased insulin resistance?
A. Decreased placental hormone production
B. Increased maternal insulin sensitivity
C. Reduced fetal glucose requirements
D. Placental hormones that antagonize insulin action
,Rationale: Placental hormones, including human placental lactogen, contribute to maternal
insulin resistance as pregnancy progresses. This helps make more glucose available to the fetus
but can contribute to gestational diabetes when maternal insulin production cannot compensate.
7. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about iron supplementation. Which food is
an appropriate dietary source of iron?
A. Lean red meat
B. Applesauce
C. White rice
D. Lettuce
Rationale: Lean red meat provides heme iron, which is relatively well absorbed. Iron can also be
obtained from legumes, fortified grains, and certain leafy vegetables, although nonheme iron is
generally less readily absorbed.
8. A client at 34 weeks of gestation reports a severe headache accompanied by
blurred vision and epigastric discomfort. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
B. Recommend increasing oral fluids.
C. Assess the client's blood pressure and other signs of preeclampsia.
D. Explain that these symptoms commonly occur late in pregnancy.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric or right-upper-quadrant
discomfort are concerning manifestations of severe hypertensive disease of pregnancy. Prompt
assessment, including blood pressure measurement and evaluation for additional complications,
is indicated.
9. A pregnant client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which
finding requires immediate attention?
A. Respiratory rate of 18/min
B. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
C. Patellar reflexes of 2+
D. Respiratory rate of 10/min
, Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression when serum levels become
excessive. A respiratory rate of 10/min is concerning for magnesium toxicity and requires
immediate intervention and evaluation.
10. A nurse is caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate having available as the antidote for
magnesium toxicity?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Oxytocin
C. Terbutaline
D. Methylergonovine
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is used to counteract the effects of magnesium toxicity. Oxytocin
and methylergonovine are uterotonic medications, while terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic
medication used in selected obstetric situations.
11. A client at 32 weeks of gestation has painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding. Which
condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding in the
second half of pregnancy. Abruptio placentae more commonly causes painful bleeding
associated with uterine tenderness or increased tone.
12. A client with suspected placenta previa is admitted with vaginal bleeding. Which
action should the nurse avoid?
A. Monitoring maternal vital signs
B. Assessing fetal heart rate
C. Monitoring the amount of vaginal bleeding
D. Performing a digital vaginal examination
