Texas MPJE Exam Questions Questions and
Answers| Latest Update 2027| Pass
Guaranteed
Texas MPJE Practice Questions & Verified Legal Facts (2026/2027 Update)
SECTION 1: FEDERAL CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES LAW
1. Under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA), which DEA schedule includes
drugs with the highest potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical
use?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: A. Schedule I. Rationale: Schedule I substances have a high
potential for abuse, no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United
States, and a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision. Examples
include heroin, LSD, and MDMA. Pharmacists cannot dispense Schedule I
substances under normal practice.
2. A DEA Form 222 is required for the transfer of which schedule of controlled
substances between registrants?
A. Schedule II only
B. Schedules II and III
,C. Schedules III through V
D. All controlled substances
Correct Answer: A. Schedule II only. Rationale: DEA Form 222 (or its electronic
equivalent under CSOS) is required for the distribution and transfer of Schedule II
controlled substances between DEA registrants. Schedules III–V can be transferred
using invoices with specific record-keeping requirements.
3. Under federal law, what is the maximum number of refills allowed for a
Schedule III controlled substance prescription?
A. No refills allowed
B. Up to 3 refills within 6 months
C. Up to 5 refills within 6 months
D. Up to 5 refills within 1 year
Correct Answer: C. Up to 5 refills within 6 months. Rationale: Federal law allows
up to 5 refills for Schedule III–V controlled substance prescriptions within 6 months
from the date the prescription was issued. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be
refilled. After 6 months or 5 refills, a new prescription is required.
4. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 established which key
distinction in drug classification?
A. Generic vs. brand-name drugs
B. Prescription (legend) vs. over-the-counter drugs
C. Controlled vs. non-controlled substances
D. Biological vs. chemical drugs
Correct Answer: B. Prescription (legend) vs. over-the-counter drugs. Rationale:
The Durham-Humphrey Amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
(FDCA) established the distinction between prescription (legend) drugs and over-
the-counter (OTC) drugs. It required that certain drugs be dispensed only with a
,valid prescription and bear the legend "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing
without prescription."
5. Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA), which of the following
medications is EXEMPT from child-resistant packaging requirements?
A. Acetaminophen tablets
B. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets
C. Amoxicillin suspension
D. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen tablets
Correct Answer: B. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. Rationale: Sublingual
nitroglycerin tablets are exempt from child-resistant packaging under the PPPA
because they require immediate access during cardiac emergencies. Other
exemptions include oral contraceptives in manufacturer dispensing packages,
certain hormone replacement therapy, and isosorbide dinitrate sublingual tablets.
6. What is the primary purpose of the FDA's Risk Evaluation and Mitigation
Strategies (REMS) program?
A. To reduce drug manufacturing costs
B. To ensure the benefits of a drug outweigh its risks
C. To speed up the drug approval process
D. To establish drug pricing guidelines
Correct Answer: B. To ensure the benefits of a drug outweigh its risks. Rationale:
REMS are drug safety programs required by the FDA for certain medications with
serious safety concerns. They help ensure the benefits of a medication outweigh its
risks. REMS may include medication guides, communication plans, and Elements
to Assure Safe Use (ETASU) such as prescriber certification and patient registries.
, 7. Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), what is the
maximum amount of pseudoephedrine a customer can purchase in a 30-day
period?
A. 3.6 grams
B. 7.5 grams
C. 9 grams
D. 15 grams
Correct Answer: C. 9 grams. Rationale: The CMEA limits pseudoephedrine
purchases to 3.6 grams per day and 9 grams per 30-day period per customer.
8. Which of the following medications are classified as Schedule II controlled
substances in Texas? (Select ALL that apply.)
A. Lisdexamfetamine
B. Dexmethylphenidate
C. Meprobamate
D. Strattera
Correct Answer: A, B. Lisdexamfetamine and Dexmethylphenidate. Rationale:
Lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse) and dexmethylphenidate (Focalin) are Schedule II
controlled substances. Meprobamate is Schedule IV, and Strattera (atomoxetine) is
not a controlled substance.
9. A pharmacist may distribute nonprescription Schedule V controlled
substances which contain no more than 15 milligrams of opium per 29.5729 mL
or per 28.35 Gm provided:
A. Distribution is made only by a pharmacist
B. Not more than 240 mL (8 fluid ounces) per 48-hour period
C. Not more than 48 solid dosage units per 48-hour period
D. All of the above
Answers| Latest Update 2027| Pass
Guaranteed
Texas MPJE Practice Questions & Verified Legal Facts (2026/2027 Update)
SECTION 1: FEDERAL CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES LAW
1. Under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA), which DEA schedule includes
drugs with the highest potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical
use?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: A. Schedule I. Rationale: Schedule I substances have a high
potential for abuse, no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United
States, and a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision. Examples
include heroin, LSD, and MDMA. Pharmacists cannot dispense Schedule I
substances under normal practice.
2. A DEA Form 222 is required for the transfer of which schedule of controlled
substances between registrants?
A. Schedule II only
B. Schedules II and III
,C. Schedules III through V
D. All controlled substances
Correct Answer: A. Schedule II only. Rationale: DEA Form 222 (or its electronic
equivalent under CSOS) is required for the distribution and transfer of Schedule II
controlled substances between DEA registrants. Schedules III–V can be transferred
using invoices with specific record-keeping requirements.
3. Under federal law, what is the maximum number of refills allowed for a
Schedule III controlled substance prescription?
A. No refills allowed
B. Up to 3 refills within 6 months
C. Up to 5 refills within 6 months
D. Up to 5 refills within 1 year
Correct Answer: C. Up to 5 refills within 6 months. Rationale: Federal law allows
up to 5 refills for Schedule III–V controlled substance prescriptions within 6 months
from the date the prescription was issued. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be
refilled. After 6 months or 5 refills, a new prescription is required.
4. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 established which key
distinction in drug classification?
A. Generic vs. brand-name drugs
B. Prescription (legend) vs. over-the-counter drugs
C. Controlled vs. non-controlled substances
D. Biological vs. chemical drugs
Correct Answer: B. Prescription (legend) vs. over-the-counter drugs. Rationale:
The Durham-Humphrey Amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
(FDCA) established the distinction between prescription (legend) drugs and over-
the-counter (OTC) drugs. It required that certain drugs be dispensed only with a
,valid prescription and bear the legend "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing
without prescription."
5. Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA), which of the following
medications is EXEMPT from child-resistant packaging requirements?
A. Acetaminophen tablets
B. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets
C. Amoxicillin suspension
D. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen tablets
Correct Answer: B. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. Rationale: Sublingual
nitroglycerin tablets are exempt from child-resistant packaging under the PPPA
because they require immediate access during cardiac emergencies. Other
exemptions include oral contraceptives in manufacturer dispensing packages,
certain hormone replacement therapy, and isosorbide dinitrate sublingual tablets.
6. What is the primary purpose of the FDA's Risk Evaluation and Mitigation
Strategies (REMS) program?
A. To reduce drug manufacturing costs
B. To ensure the benefits of a drug outweigh its risks
C. To speed up the drug approval process
D. To establish drug pricing guidelines
Correct Answer: B. To ensure the benefits of a drug outweigh its risks. Rationale:
REMS are drug safety programs required by the FDA for certain medications with
serious safety concerns. They help ensure the benefits of a medication outweigh its
risks. REMS may include medication guides, communication plans, and Elements
to Assure Safe Use (ETASU) such as prescriber certification and patient registries.
, 7. Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), what is the
maximum amount of pseudoephedrine a customer can purchase in a 30-day
period?
A. 3.6 grams
B. 7.5 grams
C. 9 grams
D. 15 grams
Correct Answer: C. 9 grams. Rationale: The CMEA limits pseudoephedrine
purchases to 3.6 grams per day and 9 grams per 30-day period per customer.
8. Which of the following medications are classified as Schedule II controlled
substances in Texas? (Select ALL that apply.)
A. Lisdexamfetamine
B. Dexmethylphenidate
C. Meprobamate
D. Strattera
Correct Answer: A, B. Lisdexamfetamine and Dexmethylphenidate. Rationale:
Lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse) and dexmethylphenidate (Focalin) are Schedule II
controlled substances. Meprobamate is Schedule IV, and Strattera (atomoxetine) is
not a controlled substance.
9. A pharmacist may distribute nonprescription Schedule V controlled
substances which contain no more than 15 milligrams of opium per 29.5729 mL
or per 28.35 Gm provided:
A. Distribution is made only by a pharmacist
B. Not more than 240 mL (8 fluid ounces) per 48-hour period
C. Not more than 48 solid dosage units per 48-hour period
D. All of the above
