NR 511 Final Exam Complete Questions and
Correct Answers plus Rationales | Latest Update
2026-2027 | Graded A+
1. The remodeling of a scar can take how long?
a. 6 months.
b. 3 months.
c. 1 month.
d. 2 weeks.
Correct Answer: a. 6 months.
Rationale: Scar remodeling is the final phase of wound healing and involves the
gradual replacement of granulation tissue with a stronger, more organized
collagen matrix. This process begins around 3 weeks after injury and can continue
for 6 months to a year or more, leading to a flatter, paler, and stronger scar.
Question 1. A 13-year-old obese (body mass index [BMI] above the 95th
percentile) boy reports low-grade left knee pain for the past 2 months. He
denies antecedent trauma but admits to frequent “horseplay” with his friends.
The pain has progressively worsened, and he is now unable to bear weight at all
on his left leg. His current complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee
pain and tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman,
and McMurray tests; left hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction;
and external hip rotation with knee flexion. Based on the above scenario, the
nurse practitioner should suspect:
1. A left meniscal tear.
2. A left anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
3. A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
4. Osgood-Schlatter disease.
,Correct Answer: 3. A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
Rationale: This is a classic presentation of SCFE. Key findings include an obese
adolescent male, insidious onset of pain referred to the knee/thigh, and limited
internal rotation of the hip. Knee tests are negative, localizing the problem to the
hip. SCFE is a Salter-Harris type I fracture through the growth plate of the proximal
femur.
Question 2. In assessing the skeletal muscles, the nurse practitioner turns the
patient's forearm so that the palm is up. This is called:
1. Supination.
2. Pronation.
3. Abduction.
4. Eversion.
Correct Answer: 1. Supination.
Rationale: Supination is the act of rotating the forearm so the palm faces
anteriorly (upward). Pronation is the opposite motion, where the palm faces
posteriorly (downward).
Question 3. Cass, age 67, tells the nurse practitioner (NP) that she has been
diagnosed with a condition that causes sudden flares of pain, swelling, and
redness of the joints in her toes. She cannot remember the name of the
diagnosis, but she knows it is caused by urate crystals that "get stuck in the joint
and cause pain." She is on hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for management of her
hypertension. The NP should suspect a diagnosis of:
1. Septic arthritis.
2. Gout.
3. Rheumatoid arthritis.
4. Charcot neuro-osteoarthropathy.
,Correct Answer: 2. Gout.
Rationale: The description of sudden, painful, red, swollen joints (especially the
great toe) caused by urate crystals is the hallmark of gout. HCTZ is a known
medication that can increase serum uric acid levels and precipitate a gout attack.
Question 4. Matthew, age 52, is a chef who just severed 2 of his fingers with a
meat cutter. You would recommend that he:
1. Wrap the severed fingers tightly in a dry towel for transport to the
emergency department with him.
2. Leave the severed fingers at the scene because fingers cannot be
reattached.
3. Immediately freeze the severed fingers for reattachment in the near future.
4. Wrap the fingers in a clean, damp cloth; seal them in a plastic bag; and
place the bag in an ice water bath.
Correct Answer: 4. Wrap the fingers in a clean, damp cloth; seal them in a plastic
bag; and place the bag in an ice water bath.
Rationale: Proper handling of an amputated part is critical for potential
reattachment. The part should be wrapped in a clean, moist dressing (to prevent
desiccation), placed in a sealed plastic bag, and then placed on ice (indirect
cooling). Direct contact with ice can cause frostbite damage to the tissue.
Question 5. Marsha, age 34, presents with symptoms resembling both
fibromyalgia and chronic fatigue syndrome, which have many similarities. Which
of the following is more characteristic of fibromyalgia than of chronic fatigue
syndrome?
1. Musculoskeletal pain.
2. Difficulty sleeping.
3. Depression.
, 4. Fatigue.
Correct Answer: 1. Musculoskeletal pain.
Rationale: While fatigue, sleep disturbance, and depression are common in both
conditions, chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain and tenderness at specific
points are the defining characteristics of fibromyalgia.
Question 6. Mrs. Kelly, age 80, has a curvature of the spine. This is likely to
indicate which age-related change?
1. Lordosis.
2. Dorsal kyphosis.
3. Scoliosis.
4. Kyphoscoliosis.
Correct Answer: 2. Dorsal kyphosis.
Rationale: Dorsal kyphosis, often called a "dowager's hump," is an exaggerated
posterior curvature of the thoracic spine. It is a common age-related change
resulting from osteoporosis and degenerative changes in the vertebrae, leading to
compression fractures.
Question 7. The valgus stress test, varus stress test, Lachman test, and thumb
sign are all considered standard tests to check the integrity of the ligaments of
the knee. Which test would the nurse practitioner choose to assess the anterior
cruciate ligament (ACL), which is the most commonly involved structure in
severe knee injury?
1. Valgus stress test.
2. Varus stress test.
3. Lachman test.
4. Thumb sign.
Correct Answers plus Rationales | Latest Update
2026-2027 | Graded A+
1. The remodeling of a scar can take how long?
a. 6 months.
b. 3 months.
c. 1 month.
d. 2 weeks.
Correct Answer: a. 6 months.
Rationale: Scar remodeling is the final phase of wound healing and involves the
gradual replacement of granulation tissue with a stronger, more organized
collagen matrix. This process begins around 3 weeks after injury and can continue
for 6 months to a year or more, leading to a flatter, paler, and stronger scar.
Question 1. A 13-year-old obese (body mass index [BMI] above the 95th
percentile) boy reports low-grade left knee pain for the past 2 months. He
denies antecedent trauma but admits to frequent “horseplay” with his friends.
The pain has progressively worsened, and he is now unable to bear weight at all
on his left leg. His current complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee
pain and tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman,
and McMurray tests; left hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction;
and external hip rotation with knee flexion. Based on the above scenario, the
nurse practitioner should suspect:
1. A left meniscal tear.
2. A left anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
3. A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
4. Osgood-Schlatter disease.
,Correct Answer: 3. A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
Rationale: This is a classic presentation of SCFE. Key findings include an obese
adolescent male, insidious onset of pain referred to the knee/thigh, and limited
internal rotation of the hip. Knee tests are negative, localizing the problem to the
hip. SCFE is a Salter-Harris type I fracture through the growth plate of the proximal
femur.
Question 2. In assessing the skeletal muscles, the nurse practitioner turns the
patient's forearm so that the palm is up. This is called:
1. Supination.
2. Pronation.
3. Abduction.
4. Eversion.
Correct Answer: 1. Supination.
Rationale: Supination is the act of rotating the forearm so the palm faces
anteriorly (upward). Pronation is the opposite motion, where the palm faces
posteriorly (downward).
Question 3. Cass, age 67, tells the nurse practitioner (NP) that she has been
diagnosed with a condition that causes sudden flares of pain, swelling, and
redness of the joints in her toes. She cannot remember the name of the
diagnosis, but she knows it is caused by urate crystals that "get stuck in the joint
and cause pain." She is on hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for management of her
hypertension. The NP should suspect a diagnosis of:
1. Septic arthritis.
2. Gout.
3. Rheumatoid arthritis.
4. Charcot neuro-osteoarthropathy.
,Correct Answer: 2. Gout.
Rationale: The description of sudden, painful, red, swollen joints (especially the
great toe) caused by urate crystals is the hallmark of gout. HCTZ is a known
medication that can increase serum uric acid levels and precipitate a gout attack.
Question 4. Matthew, age 52, is a chef who just severed 2 of his fingers with a
meat cutter. You would recommend that he:
1. Wrap the severed fingers tightly in a dry towel for transport to the
emergency department with him.
2. Leave the severed fingers at the scene because fingers cannot be
reattached.
3. Immediately freeze the severed fingers for reattachment in the near future.
4. Wrap the fingers in a clean, damp cloth; seal them in a plastic bag; and
place the bag in an ice water bath.
Correct Answer: 4. Wrap the fingers in a clean, damp cloth; seal them in a plastic
bag; and place the bag in an ice water bath.
Rationale: Proper handling of an amputated part is critical for potential
reattachment. The part should be wrapped in a clean, moist dressing (to prevent
desiccation), placed in a sealed plastic bag, and then placed on ice (indirect
cooling). Direct contact with ice can cause frostbite damage to the tissue.
Question 5. Marsha, age 34, presents with symptoms resembling both
fibromyalgia and chronic fatigue syndrome, which have many similarities. Which
of the following is more characteristic of fibromyalgia than of chronic fatigue
syndrome?
1. Musculoskeletal pain.
2. Difficulty sleeping.
3. Depression.
, 4. Fatigue.
Correct Answer: 1. Musculoskeletal pain.
Rationale: While fatigue, sleep disturbance, and depression are common in both
conditions, chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain and tenderness at specific
points are the defining characteristics of fibromyalgia.
Question 6. Mrs. Kelly, age 80, has a curvature of the spine. This is likely to
indicate which age-related change?
1. Lordosis.
2. Dorsal kyphosis.
3. Scoliosis.
4. Kyphoscoliosis.
Correct Answer: 2. Dorsal kyphosis.
Rationale: Dorsal kyphosis, often called a "dowager's hump," is an exaggerated
posterior curvature of the thoracic spine. It is a common age-related change
resulting from osteoporosis and degenerative changes in the vertebrae, leading to
compression fractures.
Question 7. The valgus stress test, varus stress test, Lachman test, and thumb
sign are all considered standard tests to check the integrity of the ligaments of
the knee. Which test would the nurse practitioner choose to assess the anterior
cruciate ligament (ACL), which is the most commonly involved structure in
severe knee injury?
1. Valgus stress test.
2. Varus stress test.
3. Lachman test.
4. Thumb sign.
