A+ VERIFIED
PRACTICAL NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
PN Fundamentals of Nursing Evolve HESI
Real Exams Questions Review — Complete
Official Exam
250 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Nursing Process, Assessment & Documentation
02 Safety, Infection Control & Mobility
03 Medication Administration & Dosage Calculation
04 Basic Nursing Skills & Hygiene
05 Nutrition, Elimination & Fluid/Electrolyte Balance
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in practical nursing fundamentals — from the nursing process, assessment,
and documentation to safety, infection control, mobility, medication administration,
dosage calculation, basic nursing skills, nutrition, elimination, and fluid/electrolyte
balance. This original study bank targets application and analysis skills for the Evolve
HESI PN Fundamentals exam, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only;
not an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Advanced (PN) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Nursing Process, Assessment & Documentation
Q1. A practical nurse begins a focused abdominal assessment on a client with nausea. After inspection shows mild distention, the next action is
to:
A. Palpate deeply for masses
B. Auscultate bowel sounds in all four quadrants before palpation
C. Percuss starting in the left lower quadrant
D. Ask the client to rate pain while palpating
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Auscultation precedes palpation so that bowel sounds are not altered by manipulation.
Q2. A previous shift documented a respiratory rate of 28 but did not notify anyone. The practical nurse's priority is to:
A. Document as a late entry and continue
B. Reassess respiratory status and report abnormal findings promptly
C. Assume improvement because the client is sleeping
D. Wait for the primary nurse to discuss it
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Abnormal vital signs require prompt reassessment and communication.
Q3. A newly admitted client says "I feel like something bad is going to happen," is restless, diaphoretic, and has a pulse of 112. Priority action:
A. Document and continue admission history
B. Perform focused cardiopulmonary assessment
C. Reassure that anxiety is common
D. Administer prescribed anxiolytic immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Impending-doom sensation with tachycardia and diaphoresis may signal a life-threatening event.
Q4. Wound documentation reads "Stage 2 pressure injury, 3 cm x 2 cm, pink tissue, no drainage." Missing essential element is:
A. Time the family discovered the injury
B. Location on the body and client response to care
C. Photograph attached to the chart
D. Name of the physician to notify later
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Complete wound documentation includes location, size, tissue type, drainage, and client response.
Q5. After assessing a wound and identifying Impaired Skin Integrity, the next nursing-process step is to:
A. Implement sterile dressing changes
B. Establish measurable goals and expected outcomes with the client
C. Evaluate current treatment effectiveness
D. Notify the provider of measurements only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Planning (goal setting) follows assessment and diagnosis and precedes implementation.
Q6. A client with hypertension has BP 168/98. After verifying cuff size and technique the practical nurse should:
A. Recheck in 30 minutes only
B. Notify the provider of the elevated reading
C. Give scheduled antihypertensive and recheck later without notification
D. Encourage rest and recheck at shift end
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Elevated BP requires verification and prompt provider notification.
Q7. Postoperative client rates pain 7/10; last opioid was 3 hours ago (order q4h). The nurse should:
A. Tell the client it is too early
B. Assess pain characteristics and contact the provider for possible order adjustment
C. Offer nonpharmacologic measures only
D. Give a partial dose independently
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Unrelieved pain requires assessment and provider communication.
Q8. Error made in a paper chart. Correct method:
A. Use correction fluid
B. Single line through error, initial, date, write correct information
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
C. Black out completely
D. Remove the page
,Q9. Nursing diagnosis Deficient Fluid Volume. Best measurable goal:
A. Client will feel better by end of shift
B. Urine output at least 30 mL/hr and moist mucous membranes within 8 hours
C. Client will drink more when offered
D. Labs will normalize eventually
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Goals must be specific, measurable, and time-limited.
Q10. Best indicator that insulin teaching was effective:
A. Client states understanding
B. Client correctly demonstrates drawing up and injecting insulin
C. Client asks no questions
D. Family reports teaching occurred
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Return demonstration confirms psychomotor skill.
Q11. Hard-of-hearing client admission. Best approach:
A. Speak loudly while facing away
B. Face the client, speak clearly, use written reinforcement if needed
C. Rely only on family for history
D. Postpone assessment indefinitely
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Facing the client optimizes lip-reading and comprehension.
Q12. Temperature 38.9°C (102°F). Before notifying provider:
A. Give antipyretic and recheck in 1 hour only
B. Assess for other infection signs and verify reading if indicated
C. Document and continue routine care
D. Encourage fluids and cool compresses only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Verification and related assessment data strengthen communication.
Q13. New tracheostomy, first 24 hours. Priority assessment:
A. Ability to swallow thin liquids
B. Airway patency and secretion characteristics
C. Family understanding of home care
D. Preferred communication method
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Airway patency is the highest priority.
Q14. Capillary refill 4 seconds most likely indicates:
A. Normal peripheral perfusion
B. Possible impaired peripheral circulation
C. Adequate hydration
D. Expected finding only in older adults
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Refill >3 seconds suggests delayed perfusion.
Q15. Correct sequence for orthostatic vital signs:
A. Lying, then sitting, then standing with 1–3 min between
B. Standing first
C. Sitting and standing only
D. Lying and standing only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Baseline lying measurements precede sitting and standing.
Q16. A client with hypertension has BP 168/98. After verifying cuff size and technique the practical nurse should:
A. Recheck in 30 minutes only
B. Notify the provider of the elevated reading
C. Give scheduled antihypertensive and recheck later without notification
D. Encourage rest and recheck at shift end
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
Elevated BP requires verification and prompt provider notification.
, Q17. Postoperative client rates pain 7/10; last opioid was 3 hours ago (order q4h). The nurse should:
A. Tell the client it is too early
B. Assess pain characteristics and contact the provider for possible order adjustment
C. Offer nonpharmacologic measures only
D. Give a partial dose independently
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Unrelieved pain requires assessment and provider communication.
Q18. Error made in a paper chart. Correct method:
A. Use correction fluid
B. Single line through error, initial, date, write correct information
C. Black out completely
D. Remove the page
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Single-line strike-through preserves the original record.
Q19. Nursing diagnosis Deficient Fluid Volume. Best measurable goal:
A. Client will feel better by end of shift
B. Urine output at least 30 mL/hr and moist mucous membranes within 8 hours
C. Client will drink more when offered
D. Labs will normalize eventually
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Goals must be specific, measurable, and time-limited.
Q20. Best indicator that insulin teaching was effective:
A. Client states understanding
B. Client correctly demonstrates drawing up and injecting insulin
C. Client asks no questions
D. Family reports teaching occurred
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Return demonstration confirms psychomotor skill.
Q21. Hard-of-hearing client admission. Best approach:
A. Speak loudly while facing away
B. Face the client, speak clearly, use written reinforcement if needed
C. Rely only on family for history
D. Postpone assessment indefinitely
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Facing the client optimizes lip-reading and comprehension.
Q22. Temperature 38.9°C (102°F). Before notifying provider:
A. Give antipyretic and recheck in 1 hour only
B. Assess for other infection signs and verify reading if indicated
C. Document and continue routine care
D. Encourage fluids and cool compresses only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Verification and related assessment data strengthen communication.
Q23. New tracheostomy, first 24 hours. Priority assessment:
A. Ability to swallow thin liquids
B. Airway patency and secretion characteristics
C. Family understanding of home care
D. Preferred communication method
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Airway patency is the highest priority.
Q24. Capillary refill 4 seconds most likely indicates:
A. Normal peripheral perfusion
B. Possible impaired peripheral circulation
C. Adequate hydration
D. Expected finding only in older adults
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
Refill >3 seconds suggests delayed perfusion.
PRACTICAL NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
PN Fundamentals of Nursing Evolve HESI
Real Exams Questions Review — Complete
Official Exam
250 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Nursing Process, Assessment & Documentation
02 Safety, Infection Control & Mobility
03 Medication Administration & Dosage Calculation
04 Basic Nursing Skills & Hygiene
05 Nutrition, Elimination & Fluid/Electrolyte Balance
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in practical nursing fundamentals — from the nursing process, assessment,
and documentation to safety, infection control, mobility, medication administration,
dosage calculation, basic nursing skills, nutrition, elimination, and fluid/electrolyte
balance. This original study bank targets application and analysis skills for the Evolve
HESI PN Fundamentals exam, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only;
not an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Advanced (PN) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Nursing Process, Assessment & Documentation
Q1. A practical nurse begins a focused abdominal assessment on a client with nausea. After inspection shows mild distention, the next action is
to:
A. Palpate deeply for masses
B. Auscultate bowel sounds in all four quadrants before palpation
C. Percuss starting in the left lower quadrant
D. Ask the client to rate pain while palpating
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Auscultation precedes palpation so that bowel sounds are not altered by manipulation.
Q2. A previous shift documented a respiratory rate of 28 but did not notify anyone. The practical nurse's priority is to:
A. Document as a late entry and continue
B. Reassess respiratory status and report abnormal findings promptly
C. Assume improvement because the client is sleeping
D. Wait for the primary nurse to discuss it
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Abnormal vital signs require prompt reassessment and communication.
Q3. A newly admitted client says "I feel like something bad is going to happen," is restless, diaphoretic, and has a pulse of 112. Priority action:
A. Document and continue admission history
B. Perform focused cardiopulmonary assessment
C. Reassure that anxiety is common
D. Administer prescribed anxiolytic immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Impending-doom sensation with tachycardia and diaphoresis may signal a life-threatening event.
Q4. Wound documentation reads "Stage 2 pressure injury, 3 cm x 2 cm, pink tissue, no drainage." Missing essential element is:
A. Time the family discovered the injury
B. Location on the body and client response to care
C. Photograph attached to the chart
D. Name of the physician to notify later
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Complete wound documentation includes location, size, tissue type, drainage, and client response.
Q5. After assessing a wound and identifying Impaired Skin Integrity, the next nursing-process step is to:
A. Implement sterile dressing changes
B. Establish measurable goals and expected outcomes with the client
C. Evaluate current treatment effectiveness
D. Notify the provider of measurements only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Planning (goal setting) follows assessment and diagnosis and precedes implementation.
Q6. A client with hypertension has BP 168/98. After verifying cuff size and technique the practical nurse should:
A. Recheck in 30 minutes only
B. Notify the provider of the elevated reading
C. Give scheduled antihypertensive and recheck later without notification
D. Encourage rest and recheck at shift end
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Elevated BP requires verification and prompt provider notification.
Q7. Postoperative client rates pain 7/10; last opioid was 3 hours ago (order q4h). The nurse should:
A. Tell the client it is too early
B. Assess pain characteristics and contact the provider for possible order adjustment
C. Offer nonpharmacologic measures only
D. Give a partial dose independently
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Unrelieved pain requires assessment and provider communication.
Q8. Error made in a paper chart. Correct method:
A. Use correction fluid
B. Single line through error, initial, date, write correct information
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
C. Black out completely
D. Remove the page
,Q9. Nursing diagnosis Deficient Fluid Volume. Best measurable goal:
A. Client will feel better by end of shift
B. Urine output at least 30 mL/hr and moist mucous membranes within 8 hours
C. Client will drink more when offered
D. Labs will normalize eventually
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Goals must be specific, measurable, and time-limited.
Q10. Best indicator that insulin teaching was effective:
A. Client states understanding
B. Client correctly demonstrates drawing up and injecting insulin
C. Client asks no questions
D. Family reports teaching occurred
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Return demonstration confirms psychomotor skill.
Q11. Hard-of-hearing client admission. Best approach:
A. Speak loudly while facing away
B. Face the client, speak clearly, use written reinforcement if needed
C. Rely only on family for history
D. Postpone assessment indefinitely
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Facing the client optimizes lip-reading and comprehension.
Q12. Temperature 38.9°C (102°F). Before notifying provider:
A. Give antipyretic and recheck in 1 hour only
B. Assess for other infection signs and verify reading if indicated
C. Document and continue routine care
D. Encourage fluids and cool compresses only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Verification and related assessment data strengthen communication.
Q13. New tracheostomy, first 24 hours. Priority assessment:
A. Ability to swallow thin liquids
B. Airway patency and secretion characteristics
C. Family understanding of home care
D. Preferred communication method
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Airway patency is the highest priority.
Q14. Capillary refill 4 seconds most likely indicates:
A. Normal peripheral perfusion
B. Possible impaired peripheral circulation
C. Adequate hydration
D. Expected finding only in older adults
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Refill >3 seconds suggests delayed perfusion.
Q15. Correct sequence for orthostatic vital signs:
A. Lying, then sitting, then standing with 1–3 min between
B. Standing first
C. Sitting and standing only
D. Lying and standing only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Baseline lying measurements precede sitting and standing.
Q16. A client with hypertension has BP 168/98. After verifying cuff size and technique the practical nurse should:
A. Recheck in 30 minutes only
B. Notify the provider of the elevated reading
C. Give scheduled antihypertensive and recheck later without notification
D. Encourage rest and recheck at shift end
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
Elevated BP requires verification and prompt provider notification.
, Q17. Postoperative client rates pain 7/10; last opioid was 3 hours ago (order q4h). The nurse should:
A. Tell the client it is too early
B. Assess pain characteristics and contact the provider for possible order adjustment
C. Offer nonpharmacologic measures only
D. Give a partial dose independently
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Unrelieved pain requires assessment and provider communication.
Q18. Error made in a paper chart. Correct method:
A. Use correction fluid
B. Single line through error, initial, date, write correct information
C. Black out completely
D. Remove the page
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Single-line strike-through preserves the original record.
Q19. Nursing diagnosis Deficient Fluid Volume. Best measurable goal:
A. Client will feel better by end of shift
B. Urine output at least 30 mL/hr and moist mucous membranes within 8 hours
C. Client will drink more when offered
D. Labs will normalize eventually
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Goals must be specific, measurable, and time-limited.
Q20. Best indicator that insulin teaching was effective:
A. Client states understanding
B. Client correctly demonstrates drawing up and injecting insulin
C. Client asks no questions
D. Family reports teaching occurred
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Return demonstration confirms psychomotor skill.
Q21. Hard-of-hearing client admission. Best approach:
A. Speak loudly while facing away
B. Face the client, speak clearly, use written reinforcement if needed
C. Rely only on family for history
D. Postpone assessment indefinitely
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Facing the client optimizes lip-reading and comprehension.
Q22. Temperature 38.9°C (102°F). Before notifying provider:
A. Give antipyretic and recheck in 1 hour only
B. Assess for other infection signs and verify reading if indicated
C. Document and continue routine care
D. Encourage fluids and cool compresses only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Verification and related assessment data strengthen communication.
Q23. New tracheostomy, first 24 hours. Priority assessment:
A. Ability to swallow thin liquids
B. Airway patency and secretion characteristics
C. Family understanding of home care
D. Preferred communication method
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Airway patency is the highest priority.
Q24. Capillary refill 4 seconds most likely indicates:
A. Normal peripheral perfusion
B. Possible impaired peripheral circulation
C. Adequate hydration
D. Expected finding only in older adults
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
Refill >3 seconds suggests delayed perfusion.
