GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING
NSG 4800 - Transition to Professional Nursing Practice
COMP 2 COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW EXAM - FALL 2026
1. Which pacemaker teaching is correct according to the review?
A. Schedule an MRI routinely after implantation.
B. Raise the arm on the implant side above the head immediately after insertion.
C. Carry the cell phone directly over the pacemaker pocket.
D. Keep the cell phone on the side opposite the pacemaker and avoid MRI/high-strength magnets unless specifically
cleared.
✓ Correct Answer: D. Keep the cell phone on the side opposite the pacemaker and avoid
MRI/high-strength magnets unless specifically cleared.
Rationale: The review advises keeping a cell phone on the opposite side, avoiding MRI and strong magnets, restricting
the implant-side arm initially, and carrying pacemaker identification.
2. Which ABG pattern is used in the review as an example of respiratory alkalosis?
A. pH 7.45 with PaCO2 32 mm Hg and HCO3 about 22 mEq/L
B. pH 7.32 with HCO3 17 mEq/L
C. pH 7.25 with HCO3 14 mEq/L
D. pH 7.20 with PaCO2 50 mm Hg and HCO3 24 mEq/L
✓ Correct Answer: A. pH 7.45 with PaCO2 32 mm Hg and HCO3 about 22 mEq/L
Rationale: The review explicitly gives pH 7.45, PaCO2 32, and HCO3 22 as an example of respiratory alkalosis.
3. A client treated with lorazepam for alcohol withdrawal becomes increasingly unresponsive. Which
antidote is identified in the source material?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine sulfate
✓ Correct Answer: C. Flumazenil
Rationale: The review identifies flumazenil as the benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse excessive
benzodiazepine sedation and respiratory depression.
4. Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to a UAP according to the Comp 2 review?
A. Measure urine output for a client with VRE on contact precautions.
B. Provide the initial medication teaching for discharge.
C. Perform the initial assessment of a newly admitted client.
D. Develop the individualized discharge plan.
✓ Correct Answer: A. Measure urine output for a client with VRE on contact precautions.
Rationale: The review lists measuring urine output for a client with VRE as an appropriate UAP task, while
assessment, planning, and initial teaching remain RN responsibilities.
5. Which nursing action is appropriate for Buck's traction?
A. Remove the weights for routine repositioning.
B. Assess pedal pulses and skin, and do not independently change the prescribed weights.
C. Add extra weight when the client reports pain.
D. Allow the traction weights to touch the bed frame.
✓ Correct Answer: B. Assess pedal pulses and skin, and do not independently change
the prescribed weights.
Rationale: The review emphasizes circulation and skin checks, free-hanging weights, and avoiding unprescribed
changes to the traction setup.
NSG 4800 Comp 2 - Fall 2026 | Page 1
,6. A client with paranoid schizophrenia and a history of auditory hallucinations is pacing and yelling, 'I will
do it.' What action is prioritized in the review?
A. Increase supervision and assess the client for immediate safety risk.
B. Argue that the hallucinations are not real.
C. Delay assessment until the next shift.
D. Leave the client alone to decrease stimulation without assessment.
✓ Correct Answer: A. Increase supervision and assess the client for immediate safety
risk.
Rationale: The mental-health review specifically identifies increased supervision as the action for a paranoid client
pacing and making a potentially threatening statement.
7. A client has major burns involving the chest. Which priority is emphasized in the review?
A. Delay airway assessment until skin care is completed.
B. Focus first on discharge teaching.
C. Assess and support the airway first, then begin rapid fluid replacement.
D. Restrict fluids for the first 24 hours.
✓ Correct Answer: C. Assess and support the airway first, then begin rapid fluid
replacement.
Rationale: The burn review identifies airway as the first priority and then rapid fluid replacement using the Parkland
approach.
8. A client's ABG results are pH 7.20, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which imbalance does the
review identify?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Normal acid-base balance
D. Metabolic alkalosis
✓ Correct Answer: A. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: The source provides these values as an example of respiratory acidosis.
9. A client receiving a gastric tube feeding has a residual greater than 100 mL. What action is indicated in
the review?
A. Discard all gastric contents and give the feeding immediately.
B. Place the client flat and continue the feeding.
C. Hold the feeding.
D. Increase the feeding rate.
✓ Correct Answer: C. Hold the feeding.
Rationale: The tube-feeding review states to check residual volume and hold the feeding when the residual exceeds
the listed threshold of 100 mL.
10. Which nursing action best reflects the review teaching for a client taking furosemide who reports
dizziness when standing?
A. Teach the client to skip electrolyte monitoring.
B. Tell the client to stand quickly to reduce dizziness.
C. Restrict all position changes until the medication is discontinued.
D. Teach the client to change positions slowly over about 1 to 2 minutes.
✓ Correct Answer: D. Teach the client to change positions slowly over about 1 to 2
minutes.
Rationale: The review links furosemide with orthostatic hypotension and instructs clients to reposition slowly.
NSG 4800 Comp 2 - Fall 2026 | Page 2
, 11. A client receiving peritoneal dialysis has cloudy, opaque outflow. What does the review identify this
as?
A. A finding caused by a correctly functioning pacemaker
B. A normal finding during every exchange
C. Evidence that the dialysis is complete and no assessment is needed
D. An early sign of peritonitis
✓ Correct Answer: D. An early sign of peritonitis
Rationale: The peritoneal-dialysis notes identify cloudy or opaque effluent as an early sign of peritonitis and
recommend reporting abdominal rigidity, distention, nausea/vomiting, or other signs of infection.
12. A client with diabetes insipidus is receiving desmopressin. Which finding indicates a therapeutic
response according to the review?
A. Increasing polyuria with dilute urine
B. A rapid increase in urine volume
C. Decreased urine output with more concentrated urine
D. Progressively lower urine specific gravity
✓ Correct Answer: C. Decreased urine output with more concentrated urine
Rationale: The source states that effective desmopressin or vasopressin therapy reduces urine output and increases
urine concentration or specific gravity.
13. Which sequence matches the review for DONNING personal protective equipment?
A. Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
B. Gown, mask, goggles or eye protection, gloves
C. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask
D. Goggles, gloves, mask, gown
✓ Correct Answer: B. Gown, mask, goggles or eye protection, gloves
Rationale: The source repeatedly gives the donning sequence as gown, mask, eye protection/goggles, then gloves.
14. Which interdisciplinary team member is emphasized for examining and treating clients with physical
mobility limitations?
A. Dietary aide
B. Unit secretary
C. Occupational therapist only
D. Physical therapist
✓ Correct Answer: D. Physical therapist
Rationale: The review identifies physical therapists as assisting with examination, testing, and treatment of physically
disabled clients.
15. A nurse discovers that the wrong medication was given. Which priority sequence is consistent with the
review?
A. Assess the client first, then notify the provider and complete required reporting.
B. Complete the incident report before assessing the client.
C. Wait for symptoms before notifying the provider.
D. Document only the medication name and omit the client's condition.
✓ Correct Answer: A. Assess the client first, then notify the provider and complete
required reporting.
Rationale: The review emphasizes assessment first after a medication error, followed by provider notification and
incident reporting.
NSG 4800 Comp 2 - Fall 2026 | Page 3
NSG 4800 - Transition to Professional Nursing Practice
COMP 2 COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW EXAM - FALL 2026
1. Which pacemaker teaching is correct according to the review?
A. Schedule an MRI routinely after implantation.
B. Raise the arm on the implant side above the head immediately after insertion.
C. Carry the cell phone directly over the pacemaker pocket.
D. Keep the cell phone on the side opposite the pacemaker and avoid MRI/high-strength magnets unless specifically
cleared.
✓ Correct Answer: D. Keep the cell phone on the side opposite the pacemaker and avoid
MRI/high-strength magnets unless specifically cleared.
Rationale: The review advises keeping a cell phone on the opposite side, avoiding MRI and strong magnets, restricting
the implant-side arm initially, and carrying pacemaker identification.
2. Which ABG pattern is used in the review as an example of respiratory alkalosis?
A. pH 7.45 with PaCO2 32 mm Hg and HCO3 about 22 mEq/L
B. pH 7.32 with HCO3 17 mEq/L
C. pH 7.25 with HCO3 14 mEq/L
D. pH 7.20 with PaCO2 50 mm Hg and HCO3 24 mEq/L
✓ Correct Answer: A. pH 7.45 with PaCO2 32 mm Hg and HCO3 about 22 mEq/L
Rationale: The review explicitly gives pH 7.45, PaCO2 32, and HCO3 22 as an example of respiratory alkalosis.
3. A client treated with lorazepam for alcohol withdrawal becomes increasingly unresponsive. Which
antidote is identified in the source material?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine sulfate
✓ Correct Answer: C. Flumazenil
Rationale: The review identifies flumazenil as the benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse excessive
benzodiazepine sedation and respiratory depression.
4. Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to a UAP according to the Comp 2 review?
A. Measure urine output for a client with VRE on contact precautions.
B. Provide the initial medication teaching for discharge.
C. Perform the initial assessment of a newly admitted client.
D. Develop the individualized discharge plan.
✓ Correct Answer: A. Measure urine output for a client with VRE on contact precautions.
Rationale: The review lists measuring urine output for a client with VRE as an appropriate UAP task, while
assessment, planning, and initial teaching remain RN responsibilities.
5. Which nursing action is appropriate for Buck's traction?
A. Remove the weights for routine repositioning.
B. Assess pedal pulses and skin, and do not independently change the prescribed weights.
C. Add extra weight when the client reports pain.
D. Allow the traction weights to touch the bed frame.
✓ Correct Answer: B. Assess pedal pulses and skin, and do not independently change
the prescribed weights.
Rationale: The review emphasizes circulation and skin checks, free-hanging weights, and avoiding unprescribed
changes to the traction setup.
NSG 4800 Comp 2 - Fall 2026 | Page 1
,6. A client with paranoid schizophrenia and a history of auditory hallucinations is pacing and yelling, 'I will
do it.' What action is prioritized in the review?
A. Increase supervision and assess the client for immediate safety risk.
B. Argue that the hallucinations are not real.
C. Delay assessment until the next shift.
D. Leave the client alone to decrease stimulation without assessment.
✓ Correct Answer: A. Increase supervision and assess the client for immediate safety
risk.
Rationale: The mental-health review specifically identifies increased supervision as the action for a paranoid client
pacing and making a potentially threatening statement.
7. A client has major burns involving the chest. Which priority is emphasized in the review?
A. Delay airway assessment until skin care is completed.
B. Focus first on discharge teaching.
C. Assess and support the airway first, then begin rapid fluid replacement.
D. Restrict fluids for the first 24 hours.
✓ Correct Answer: C. Assess and support the airway first, then begin rapid fluid
replacement.
Rationale: The burn review identifies airway as the first priority and then rapid fluid replacement using the Parkland
approach.
8. A client's ABG results are pH 7.20, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which imbalance does the
review identify?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Normal acid-base balance
D. Metabolic alkalosis
✓ Correct Answer: A. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: The source provides these values as an example of respiratory acidosis.
9. A client receiving a gastric tube feeding has a residual greater than 100 mL. What action is indicated in
the review?
A. Discard all gastric contents and give the feeding immediately.
B. Place the client flat and continue the feeding.
C. Hold the feeding.
D. Increase the feeding rate.
✓ Correct Answer: C. Hold the feeding.
Rationale: The tube-feeding review states to check residual volume and hold the feeding when the residual exceeds
the listed threshold of 100 mL.
10. Which nursing action best reflects the review teaching for a client taking furosemide who reports
dizziness when standing?
A. Teach the client to skip electrolyte monitoring.
B. Tell the client to stand quickly to reduce dizziness.
C. Restrict all position changes until the medication is discontinued.
D. Teach the client to change positions slowly over about 1 to 2 minutes.
✓ Correct Answer: D. Teach the client to change positions slowly over about 1 to 2
minutes.
Rationale: The review links furosemide with orthostatic hypotension and instructs clients to reposition slowly.
NSG 4800 Comp 2 - Fall 2026 | Page 2
, 11. A client receiving peritoneal dialysis has cloudy, opaque outflow. What does the review identify this
as?
A. A finding caused by a correctly functioning pacemaker
B. A normal finding during every exchange
C. Evidence that the dialysis is complete and no assessment is needed
D. An early sign of peritonitis
✓ Correct Answer: D. An early sign of peritonitis
Rationale: The peritoneal-dialysis notes identify cloudy or opaque effluent as an early sign of peritonitis and
recommend reporting abdominal rigidity, distention, nausea/vomiting, or other signs of infection.
12. A client with diabetes insipidus is receiving desmopressin. Which finding indicates a therapeutic
response according to the review?
A. Increasing polyuria with dilute urine
B. A rapid increase in urine volume
C. Decreased urine output with more concentrated urine
D. Progressively lower urine specific gravity
✓ Correct Answer: C. Decreased urine output with more concentrated urine
Rationale: The source states that effective desmopressin or vasopressin therapy reduces urine output and increases
urine concentration or specific gravity.
13. Which sequence matches the review for DONNING personal protective equipment?
A. Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
B. Gown, mask, goggles or eye protection, gloves
C. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask
D. Goggles, gloves, mask, gown
✓ Correct Answer: B. Gown, mask, goggles or eye protection, gloves
Rationale: The source repeatedly gives the donning sequence as gown, mask, eye protection/goggles, then gloves.
14. Which interdisciplinary team member is emphasized for examining and treating clients with physical
mobility limitations?
A. Dietary aide
B. Unit secretary
C. Occupational therapist only
D. Physical therapist
✓ Correct Answer: D. Physical therapist
Rationale: The review identifies physical therapists as assisting with examination, testing, and treatment of physically
disabled clients.
15. A nurse discovers that the wrong medication was given. Which priority sequence is consistent with the
review?
A. Assess the client first, then notify the provider and complete required reporting.
B. Complete the incident report before assessing the client.
C. Wait for symptoms before notifying the provider.
D. Document only the medication name and omit the client's condition.
✓ Correct Answer: A. Assess the client first, then notify the provider and complete
required reporting.
Rationale: The review emphasizes assessment first after a medication error, followed by provider notification and
incident reporting.
NSG 4800 Comp 2 - Fall 2026 | Page 3
