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NUR 223 Exam 1 Care of Women and Children Questions And Answers 2026/2027 Jersey College

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This document helps you master the NUR 223 Nursing IV: Care of Women and Children Exam 1 at Jersey College via targeted Q&A with detailed rationales. It covers cultural considerations in childbearing, contraceptive safety and preconception education, menstrual disorders including PMS, PCOS, and STIs, prenatal physiological and psychological changes by trimester, probable/presumptive/positive signs of pregnancy, GTPAL obstetric history and EDD calculation, and Rh incompatibility with nutritional health promotion. Engineered to maximize retention and sharpen critical understanding, this test pack simplifies complex content, saving preparation time and helping you secure an A on your Exam 1 Assessment.

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,NUR 223 Exam 1 Care of Women and Children Questions And
Answers 2026/2027 Jersey College

Q1. Which hormone surge directly triggers ovulation during a typical
menstrual cycle?

A) Prolactin
B) Progesterone
C) Human chorionic gonadotropin
D) Luteinizing hormone

Correct Answer: D) Luteinizing hormone

Rationale: A surge in luteinizing hormone causes rupture of the mature
ovarian follicle and release of the ovum.

Q2. Which preconception intervention most directly reduces the risk
of fetal neural tube defects?

A) Adequate folic acid intake before conception and during early pregnancy
B) Increasing sodium intake
C) Avoiding all exercise
D) Restricting dietary protein

Correct Answer: A) Adequate folic acid intake before conception and during
early pregnancy

Rationale: Adequate folate during the periconception period reduces the
risk of neural tube defects because neural tube development occurs very
early in pregnancy.

Q3. Where does fertilization most commonly occur?

A) Cervix
B) Uterine fundus
C) Ampulla of the fallopian tube
D) Vagina

Correct Answer: C) Ampulla of the fallopian tube

Rationale: Fertilization most often occurs in the ampullary portion of the
fallopian tube before the developing conceptus travels toward the uterus.

Q4. A patient planning pregnancy has no immunity to rubella. Which
recommendation is appropriate?

,A) Receive the vaccine during the first trimester
B) Wait until active labor to receive the vaccine
C) Avoid vaccination permanently
D) Receive the rubella-containing vaccine before pregnancy and avoid
conception for the recommended period afterward

Correct Answer: D) Receive the rubella-containing vaccine before pregnancy
and avoid conception for the recommended period afterward

Rationale: Rubella-containing vaccines are live vaccines and are given
before pregnancy rather than during pregnancy.

Q5. Which statement best describes the purpose of preconception
care?

A) Confirm fetal presentation
B) Determine the newborn's Apgar score
C) Identify and modify health risks before pregnancy begins
D) Diagnose postpartum complications

Correct Answer: C) Identify and modify health risks before pregnancy begins

Rationale: Preconception care addresses health conditions, medications,
nutrition, immunization status, exposures, and behaviors that may affect
pregnancy outcomes.

Q6. Which substance should be avoided during pregnancy because
no safe amount has been established for fetal exposure?

A) Alcohol
B) Dietary protein
C) Folic acid
D) Iron

Correct Answer: A) Alcohol

Rationale: Prenatal alcohol exposure can impair fetal development, and no
amount of alcohol has been established as safe during pregnancy.

Q7. Why is a complete medication history important before
conception?

A) Some prescription, nonprescription, herbal, or recreational substances
may affect fetal development
B) All medications become harmless before implantation

, C) Only injectable medications affect pregnancy
D) Medication exposure matters only during labor

Correct Answer: A) Some prescription, nonprescription, herbal, or
recreational substances may affect fetal development

Rationale: Medication and substance exposures should be reviewed
because some agents may be teratogenic or otherwise harmful during
pregnancy.

Q8. A pregnant patient becomes dizzy and hypotensive while lying
flat late in pregnancy. Which position is most appropriate?

A) Prone
B) Left lateral
C) Trendelenburg
D) Flat supine

Correct Answer: B) Left lateral

Rationale: Lateral positioning reduces compression of the vena cava by the
gravid uterus and can improve venous return and maternal cardiac output.

Q9. Which finding is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

A) Fetal heart tones detected by Doppler
B) Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound
C) Amenorrhea
D) Fetal movement palpated by an examiner

Correct Answer: C) Amenorrhea

Rationale: Amenorrhea is a subjective or presumptive sign because
conditions other than pregnancy can also cause absence of menstruation.

Q10. Which finding is a positive sign of pregnancy?

A) Fetal cardiac activity detected by an examiner
B) Breast tenderness
C) Nausea
D) Urinary frequency

Correct Answer: A) Fetal cardiac activity detected by an examiner

Rationale: Fetal cardiac activity directly demonstrates the presence of a
fetus and is considered a positive sign of pregnancy.

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