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NR566 Advanced Pharmacology
for Care of the Family Final Exam
Study Guide Weeks 5-8
(Chamberlain University 2025-
2026)
Prepare for NR566 Advanced Pharmacology for Care of
the Family Final Exam with this Weeks 5-8 study guide.
Covers eyes, ears, nose, skin, mental health, CNS
disorders, health promotion, and weight loss. Includes
practice questions with detailed rationales and clinical
reasoning for Chamberlain University 2025-2026.
Organized by week for efficient review of key drug
classes, adverse effects, monitoring, and patient
teaching.
Week 5: Pharmacotherapy for Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Skin (25 Questions)
1. A patient is prescribed timolol eye drops for glaucoma. Which condition would
require the nurse to question this order?
A. Hypertension
B. Asthma
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Osteoarthritis
Answer: B
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Rationale: Timolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause
bronchoconstriction. It is contraindicated in patients with asthma or COPD.
Betaxolol, a cardioselective beta-blocker, would be a safer alternative.
Hypertension and diabetes are not contraindications, though beta-blockers can
mask hypoglycemia symptoms in diabetic patients.
2. A patient using latanoprost reports a gradual change in eye color. What is the
appropriate response?
A. "This is a sign of drug toxicity and you should stop the medication."
B. "This is an expected effect caused by increased pigmentation of the iris."
C. "This indicates your glaucoma is worsening."
D. "This is an allergic reaction requiring immediate evaluation."
Answer: B
Rationale: Latanoprost causes increased pigmentation of the iris and eyelashes
in some patients. This is an expected, well-documented adverse effect that may
be permanent. It is not a sign of toxicity, disease progression, or allergy.
3. Which medication is considered first-line for allergic rhinitis because of its potent
anti-inflammatory effect on nasal mucosa?
A. Oral pseudoephedrine
B. Intranasal fluticasone
C. Oral diphenhydramine
D. Intranasal cromolyn
Answer: B
Rationale: Intranasal glucocorticoids such as fluticasone are the most effective
first-line therapy for allergic rhinitis. They reduce inflammation locally with
minimal systemic absorption. Oral decongestants and first-generation
antihistamines are adjuncts or second-line. Cromolyn is less effective and
requires frequent dosing.
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4. A patient with hypertension asks about using oral pseudoephedrine for nasal
congestion. What is the best response?
A. "It is safe to use with your blood pressure medication."
B. "It can raise your blood pressure and should be avoided or used cautiously."
C. "It will lower your blood pressure and require dose adjustment."
D. "It has no effect on blood pressure."
Answer: B
Rationale: Pseudoephedrine is an alpha-adrenergic agonist that causes
vasoconstriction and can elevate blood pressure and heart rate. It should be
avoided or used with extreme caution in patients with hypertension, cardiac
disease, or hyperthyroidism.
5. Which instruction is correct for administering ear drops to an adult?
A. Pull the pinna down and back.
B. Pull the pinna up and back.
C. Lie flat for 30 minutes after instillation.
D. Insert a cotton ball tightly into the ear canal.
Answer: B
Rationale: For adults, the pinna is pulled up and back to straighten the ear
canal. For children under 3, the pinna is pulled down and back. Patients should
remain side-lying for several minutes, and a loose cotton ball may be placed at
the meatus, not tightly packed.
6. A patient with otitis externa is prescribed ciprofloxacin otic drops. Which
instruction is most important?
A. "Keep the ear canal dry and avoid swimming."
B. "Take this medication orally with food."
C. "Stop the drops once the pain subsides."
D. "Use the drops for no more than 3 days."
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Answer: A
Rationale: Otitis externa is often associated with moisture in the ear canal, so
keeping the ear dry is essential. Patients should avoid swimming and protect
the ear during bathing. Ciprofloxacin otic is a topical drop, not oral. The full
course must be completed, typically 7 days.
7. Which oral antihistamine is least likely to cause sedation?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Loratadine
D. Promethazine
Answer: C
Rationale: Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that does not cross
the blood-brain barrier significantly, so it causes minimal sedation.
Diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine, and promethazine are first-generation agents
with significant sedating and anticholinergic effects.
8. Benzoyl peroxide is prescribed for acne. What is its primary mechanism of action?
A. Blocking androgen receptors
B. Killing Cutibacterium acnes and promoting keratolysis
C. Inhibiting sebum production
D. Reducing inflammation through corticosteroid effects
Answer: B
Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide has antibacterial activity against Cutibacterium
acnes and promotes peeling of the stratum corneum (keratolytic effect). It does
not affect androgen receptors, sebum production, or act as a corticosteroid.
9. A patient is prescribed tretinoin for acne. Which instruction is essential?
NR566 Advanced Pharmacology
for Care of the Family Final Exam
Study Guide Weeks 5-8
(Chamberlain University 2025-
2026)
Prepare for NR566 Advanced Pharmacology for Care of
the Family Final Exam with this Weeks 5-8 study guide.
Covers eyes, ears, nose, skin, mental health, CNS
disorders, health promotion, and weight loss. Includes
practice questions with detailed rationales and clinical
reasoning for Chamberlain University 2025-2026.
Organized by week for efficient review of key drug
classes, adverse effects, monitoring, and patient
teaching.
Week 5: Pharmacotherapy for Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Skin (25 Questions)
1. A patient is prescribed timolol eye drops for glaucoma. Which condition would
require the nurse to question this order?
A. Hypertension
B. Asthma
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Osteoarthritis
Answer: B
,2|Page
Rationale: Timolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause
bronchoconstriction. It is contraindicated in patients with asthma or COPD.
Betaxolol, a cardioselective beta-blocker, would be a safer alternative.
Hypertension and diabetes are not contraindications, though beta-blockers can
mask hypoglycemia symptoms in diabetic patients.
2. A patient using latanoprost reports a gradual change in eye color. What is the
appropriate response?
A. "This is a sign of drug toxicity and you should stop the medication."
B. "This is an expected effect caused by increased pigmentation of the iris."
C. "This indicates your glaucoma is worsening."
D. "This is an allergic reaction requiring immediate evaluation."
Answer: B
Rationale: Latanoprost causes increased pigmentation of the iris and eyelashes
in some patients. This is an expected, well-documented adverse effect that may
be permanent. It is not a sign of toxicity, disease progression, or allergy.
3. Which medication is considered first-line for allergic rhinitis because of its potent
anti-inflammatory effect on nasal mucosa?
A. Oral pseudoephedrine
B. Intranasal fluticasone
C. Oral diphenhydramine
D. Intranasal cromolyn
Answer: B
Rationale: Intranasal glucocorticoids such as fluticasone are the most effective
first-line therapy for allergic rhinitis. They reduce inflammation locally with
minimal systemic absorption. Oral decongestants and first-generation
antihistamines are adjuncts or second-line. Cromolyn is less effective and
requires frequent dosing.
,3|Page
4. A patient with hypertension asks about using oral pseudoephedrine for nasal
congestion. What is the best response?
A. "It is safe to use with your blood pressure medication."
B. "It can raise your blood pressure and should be avoided or used cautiously."
C. "It will lower your blood pressure and require dose adjustment."
D. "It has no effect on blood pressure."
Answer: B
Rationale: Pseudoephedrine is an alpha-adrenergic agonist that causes
vasoconstriction and can elevate blood pressure and heart rate. It should be
avoided or used with extreme caution in patients with hypertension, cardiac
disease, or hyperthyroidism.
5. Which instruction is correct for administering ear drops to an adult?
A. Pull the pinna down and back.
B. Pull the pinna up and back.
C. Lie flat for 30 minutes after instillation.
D. Insert a cotton ball tightly into the ear canal.
Answer: B
Rationale: For adults, the pinna is pulled up and back to straighten the ear
canal. For children under 3, the pinna is pulled down and back. Patients should
remain side-lying for several minutes, and a loose cotton ball may be placed at
the meatus, not tightly packed.
6. A patient with otitis externa is prescribed ciprofloxacin otic drops. Which
instruction is most important?
A. "Keep the ear canal dry and avoid swimming."
B. "Take this medication orally with food."
C. "Stop the drops once the pain subsides."
D. "Use the drops for no more than 3 days."
, 4|Page
Answer: A
Rationale: Otitis externa is often associated with moisture in the ear canal, so
keeping the ear dry is essential. Patients should avoid swimming and protect
the ear during bathing. Ciprofloxacin otic is a topical drop, not oral. The full
course must be completed, typically 7 days.
7. Which oral antihistamine is least likely to cause sedation?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Loratadine
D. Promethazine
Answer: C
Rationale: Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that does not cross
the blood-brain barrier significantly, so it causes minimal sedation.
Diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine, and promethazine are first-generation agents
with significant sedating and anticholinergic effects.
8. Benzoyl peroxide is prescribed for acne. What is its primary mechanism of action?
A. Blocking androgen receptors
B. Killing Cutibacterium acnes and promoting keratolysis
C. Inhibiting sebum production
D. Reducing inflammation through corticosteroid effects
Answer: B
Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide has antibacterial activity against Cutibacterium
acnes and promotes peeling of the stratum corneum (keratolytic effect). It does
not affect androgen receptors, sebum production, or act as a corticosteroid.
9. A patient is prescribed tretinoin for acne. Which instruction is essential?
