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NR 511 CEA Prep [Latest ]: Practice Exam Questions, Answers & Rationales | Graded A+

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NR 511 CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions and Correct Answers plus Rationales | Latest Update | Graded A+ 1. The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation? A) Left upper lobe apex B) Right middle lobe C) Left upper lobe lingula D) Left lower lo 2. The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which diagnosis? A) Systolic dysfunction B) Diastolic dysfunction C) Valvular stenosis D) Pericardial effusion 3. An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting salt, eating DASH, and exercising, but BP remains elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe? A) ACE inhibitor B) Thiazide diuretic

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NR 511 CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions
and Correct Answers plus Rationales | Latest
Update 2026-2027 | Graded A+

1. The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray
on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left
border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle.
The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the
cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation?
A) Left upper lobe apex
B) Right middle lobe
C) Left upper lobe lingula
D) Left lower lobe
Correct Answer: C — Left upper lobe lingula. Rationale: Lingular consolidation
obliterates the left heart border; right middle lobe or lingula are the only lobes
adjacent to the cardiac silhouette.


2. The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of
which diagnosis?
A) Systolic dysfunction
B) Diastolic dysfunction
C) Valvular stenosis
D) Pericardial effusion
Correct Answer: B — Diastolic dysfunction. Rationale: Impaired relaxation is
characteristic of diastolic dysfunction, often with thickened/hypertrophic
myocardium.

,3. An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with
hypertension. He has been restricting salt, eating DASH, and exercising, but BP
remains elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Calcium channel blocker
D) Beta-blocker
Correct Answer: C — Calcium channel blocker. Rationale: JNC8 recommends a
dihydropyridine CCB (e.g., amlodipine) as first-line for African American patients
not at goal with lifestyle modification.


4. Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5 cm ascending aortic aneurysm.
Which medical imaging is standard of care for serial surveillance?
A) Chest X-ray
B) CT angiography of the chest
C) Transthoracic echocardiogram
D) MRI without contrast
Correct Answer: B — CT angiography of the chest. Rationale: CT angiography
provides accurate multi-axis measurement of vascular luminal dimensions.


5. Which medication does not cause beta-1 stimulation?
A) Dobutamine
B) Isoproterenol
C) Phenylephrine
D) Epinephrine
Correct Answer: C — Phenylephrine. Rationale: Phenylephrine is a pure alpha-1
agonist; the others have beta activity.


6. A 50-year-old woman with hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion
and orthopnea. Exam: JVD and bilateral crackles. Most likely diagnosis?

,A) Pneumonia
B) COPD exacerbation
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: C — Congestive heart failure. Rationale: JVD suggests right-
sided backup; crackles suggest left-sided backup/fluid overload.


7. Patient with HFrEF (EF 40%), not on optimal medical therapy, has an MI and
receives a drug-eluting stent to the LAD. Which medication strategy is a priority
after discharge?
A) Holter monitor
B) TTE and Lifevest if EF <35%
C) Stop dual antiplatelet therapy
D) Start calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer: B — Ordering a TTE and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%.
Rationale: Low EF increases sudden cardiac death risk; AICD/Lifevest if EF <35%,
repeat echo in 2–3 months.


8. Which people group represents the least risk of cardiac disease?
A) African Americans
B) Native Hawaiians
C) Caucasians
D) American Indians
Correct Answer: C — Caucasians. Rationale: Other groups have higher rates of
hypertension, diabetes, and obesity.


9. A 65-year-old woman, smoker, HTN controlled, mother died at 40 from MI.
Lipids: chol 240, HDL 30, LDL 200. In addition to lifestyle changes, NP should
start:
A) Bile acid sequestrant
B) Statin

, C) Cholesterol absorption inhibitor
D) Fibrate
Correct Answer: B — a statin drug. Rationale: Statins are most
aggressive/evidence-based for high LDL with premature CAD family history and
smoking.


10. Which end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled
hypertension?
A) Proteinuria
B) AV nicking
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) Hemorrhagic stroke
Correct Answer: C — Peripheral neuropathy. Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy is
directly attributed to diabetes, not hypertension alone.


11. Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all the following
except?
A) Smoking cessation
B) Exercise
C) Genetic predisposition
D) Medication compliance
Correct Answer: C — Genetic predisposition. Rationale: Non-modifiable risk
factors are not the primary focus of prevention.


12. A 33-year-old woman with irregular menses, hirsutism, obesity, elevated
testosterone, LH:FSH >2:1. Most appropriate initial treatment?
A) Metformin
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Spironolactone
D) Clomiphene

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