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Ati Rn Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2026 Actual And Retake | Full 70 Questions With Verified Answers And Rationales | 100% Guaranteed Pass For Rn Students

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ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM 2026 ACTUAL AND RETAKE | FULL 70 QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS AND RATIONALES | 100% GUARANTEED PASS FOR RN STUDENTS

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ATI RN MATERNAL
NEWBORN PROCTORED
EXAM 2026 ACTUAL AND
RETAKE | FULL 70
QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES | 100%
GUARANTEED PASS FOR
RN STUDENTS

ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam Practice
(Blueprint-Aligned)

Section 1: Antepartum Care

,1. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation about manifestations
to report to the provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse
include?

A. Nausea upon awakening
B. Blurred or double vision
C. Increased white vaginal discharge
D. Leg cramps when sleeping

Rationale: Blurred or double vision can indicate preeclampsia or gestational
hypertension and should be reported immediately. Nausea upon awakening is common
morning sickness, leukorrhea is normal, and leg cramps are common discomforts.




2. A nurse is calculating a client's estimated date of delivery using Naegele's rule.
The client's last menstrual period began on April 1st. What is the estimated date of
delivery?

A. January 1st
B. January 8th
C. January 15th
D. February 1st

Rationale: Naegele's rule: Subtract 3 months from the first day of LMP (April 1st →
January 1st), add 7 days (January 1st + 7 = January 8th), and add 1 year.




3. A client's health record includes G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret
this?

A. The client has had 3 pregnancies and has 1 living child
B. The client has delivered 3 term infants
C. The client has experienced 2 abortions
D. The client has 3 living children

Rationale: GTPAL: G (Gravida) = 3 total pregnancies; T (Term) = 1; P (Preterm) = 0; A
(Abortions) = 1; L (Living) = 1.

,4. A client at 32 weeks of gestation reports sudden, painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture

Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester is
characteristic of placenta previa. Placental abruption typically presents with painful
bleeding and a rigid, tender uterus.




5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has a mild
placental abruption. Which finding should the nurse expect?

A. Bright red vaginal bleeding
B. Dark red vaginal bleeding
C. Painless vaginal bleeding
D. Profuse gushing of clear fluid

Rationale: Placental abruption typically presents with dark red bleeding due to blood
trapped behind the placenta. Pain is usually present, distinguishing it from placenta
previa which presents with painless bright red bleeding.




6. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 26 weeks of gestation with a 1-hour
glucose tolerance test result of 142 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse plan to
take?

A. Document as normal and continue routine monitoring
B. Instruct the client to begin a carbohydrate-free diet
C. Schedule the client for a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test
D. Administer regular insulin subcutaneously

, Rationale: A 1-hour GTT value of 130-140 mg/dL or higher is a positive screening result
for gestational diabetes and requires confirmation with a 3-hour OGTT. A carbohydrate-
free diet is contraindicated during pregnancy due to risk of maternal ketosis.




7. A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks of gestation and measures the fundal
height at 27 cm. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

A. Polyhydramnios
B. Macrosomia
C. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
D. Multifetal gestation

Rationale: Between 20 and 36 weeks, fundal height in centimeters should correlate
within ±2 cm of gestational age. A fundal height of 27 cm at 32 weeks represents a
significant negative deviation, suggesting IUGR.




8. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client at 39 weeks of gestation with
polyhydramnios. Which fetal anomaly is most associated with this condition?

A. Renal agenesis
B. Fetal gastrointestinal anomaly
C. Neural tube defect
D. Cardiac anomaly

Rationale: Polyhydramnios is associated with fetal GI anomalies that impair swallowing
(esophageal atresia, duodenal atresia). Renal agenesis causes oligohydramnios due to
decreased urine output.




9. A nurse is teaching a client at 30 weeks of gestation about warning signs of
complications. Which finding should the nurse include?

A. 10 fetal movements per hour
B. Mild constipation

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