NSG 552 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1, 2
& 3: 300-QUESTION COMPREHENSIVE
PRACTICE EXAM WITH ANSWERS &
RATIONALES | WILKES UNIVERSITY A+
GRADED |GUARANTEED PASS |LATEST!!
1. Which term describes what the body does to a medication, including
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Therapeutic index
Answer: B. Pharmacokinetics
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes the movement of a drug through the
body, commonly summarized as absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion (ADME). Pharmacodynamics describes the effects of the drug on the
body.
2. Which neurotransmitter is most strongly associated with serotonergic
antidepressant treatment?
A. Serotonin
B. Acetylcholine
C. GABA
D. Glutamate
Answer: A. Serotonin
Rationale: SSRIs and several other antidepressants increase serotonergic
neurotransmission. Serotonin is involved in mood, anxiety, sleep, and other
physiologic functions.
,3. A patient taking an SSRI develops agitation, diaphoresis, tremor,
hyperreflexia, and fever. Which condition should the psychiatric nurse
practitioner suspect?
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B. Serotonin syndrome
C. Anticholinergic toxicity
D. Lithium toxicity
Answer: B. Serotonin syndrome
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome can result from excessive serotonergic activity
and commonly presents with mental-status changes, autonomic instability, and
neuromuscular abnormalities such as hyperreflexia and clonus.
4. Which medication is classified as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
(SSRI)?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Venlafaxine
C. Bupropion
D. Amitriptyline
Answer: A. Fluoxetine
Rationale: Fluoxetine is an SSRI. Venlafaxine is an SNRI, bupropion primarily
inhibits norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake, and amitriptyline is a tricyclic
antidepressant.
5. Which laboratory parameter is particularly important when monitoring
a patient receiving lithium therapy?
A. Serum lithium concentration
B. Serum amylase only
C. Hemoglobin A1c only
D. Troponin level
Answer: A. Serum lithium concentration
,Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index. Serum concentrations
should be monitored along with renal and thyroid function, and clinicians
should assess for signs of toxicity.
6. Which adverse effect is particularly associated with second-generation
antipsychotic medications?
A. Metabolic abnormalities
B. Severe hypoglycemia in every patient
C. Permanent hearing loss
D. Vitamin C deficiency
Answer: A. Metabolic abnormalities
Rationale: Some second-generation antipsychotics can contribute to weight
gain, dyslipidemia, and abnormalities in glucose regulation. Monitoring weight,
metabolic parameters, and other relevant clinical measures is therefore
important.
7. A patient taking a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic develops
muscle rigidity, tremor, and abnormal involuntary movements. Which
adverse-effect category should be considered?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Serotonin withdrawal
C. Cholinergic crisis
D. Thyroid storm
Answer: A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
Rationale: Dopamine D2 receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway can
produce extrapyramidal symptoms, including acute dystonia, akathisia, and
parkinsonism. Tardive dyskinesia is another movement disorder associated with
antipsychotic exposure.
8. Which medication is commonly used as a medication-assisted treatment
option for opioid use disorder?
, A. Buprenorphine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Lamotrigine
D. Mirtazapine
Answer: A. Buprenorphine
Rationale: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist used in the treatment of
opioid use disorder. It can reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings when
appropriately prescribed and monitored.
9. Which medication is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced
respiratory depression?
A. Naloxone
B. Buspirone
C. Gabapentin
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: A. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone rapidly antagonizes opioid receptors and can reverse
opioid-induced respiratory depression. It is an important emergency medication
in suspected opioid overdose.
10. Which statement best describes an antagonist at a receptor?
A. It produces maximal receptor activation
B. It blocks or reduces the action of an agonist
C. It permanently destroys the receptor
D. It always produces a partial biologic response
Answer: B. It blocks or reduces the action of an agonist
Rationale: A receptor antagonist binds to a receptor without producing the
activating effect associated with an agonist and can prevent or reduce the
effects of an agonist.
11. Which neurotransmitter is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in
the central nervous system?
& 3: 300-QUESTION COMPREHENSIVE
PRACTICE EXAM WITH ANSWERS &
RATIONALES | WILKES UNIVERSITY A+
GRADED |GUARANTEED PASS |LATEST!!
1. Which term describes what the body does to a medication, including
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Therapeutic index
Answer: B. Pharmacokinetics
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes the movement of a drug through the
body, commonly summarized as absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion (ADME). Pharmacodynamics describes the effects of the drug on the
body.
2. Which neurotransmitter is most strongly associated with serotonergic
antidepressant treatment?
A. Serotonin
B. Acetylcholine
C. GABA
D. Glutamate
Answer: A. Serotonin
Rationale: SSRIs and several other antidepressants increase serotonergic
neurotransmission. Serotonin is involved in mood, anxiety, sleep, and other
physiologic functions.
,3. A patient taking an SSRI develops agitation, diaphoresis, tremor,
hyperreflexia, and fever. Which condition should the psychiatric nurse
practitioner suspect?
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B. Serotonin syndrome
C. Anticholinergic toxicity
D. Lithium toxicity
Answer: B. Serotonin syndrome
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome can result from excessive serotonergic activity
and commonly presents with mental-status changes, autonomic instability, and
neuromuscular abnormalities such as hyperreflexia and clonus.
4. Which medication is classified as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
(SSRI)?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Venlafaxine
C. Bupropion
D. Amitriptyline
Answer: A. Fluoxetine
Rationale: Fluoxetine is an SSRI. Venlafaxine is an SNRI, bupropion primarily
inhibits norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake, and amitriptyline is a tricyclic
antidepressant.
5. Which laboratory parameter is particularly important when monitoring
a patient receiving lithium therapy?
A. Serum lithium concentration
B. Serum amylase only
C. Hemoglobin A1c only
D. Troponin level
Answer: A. Serum lithium concentration
,Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index. Serum concentrations
should be monitored along with renal and thyroid function, and clinicians
should assess for signs of toxicity.
6. Which adverse effect is particularly associated with second-generation
antipsychotic medications?
A. Metabolic abnormalities
B. Severe hypoglycemia in every patient
C. Permanent hearing loss
D. Vitamin C deficiency
Answer: A. Metabolic abnormalities
Rationale: Some second-generation antipsychotics can contribute to weight
gain, dyslipidemia, and abnormalities in glucose regulation. Monitoring weight,
metabolic parameters, and other relevant clinical measures is therefore
important.
7. A patient taking a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic develops
muscle rigidity, tremor, and abnormal involuntary movements. Which
adverse-effect category should be considered?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Serotonin withdrawal
C. Cholinergic crisis
D. Thyroid storm
Answer: A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
Rationale: Dopamine D2 receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway can
produce extrapyramidal symptoms, including acute dystonia, akathisia, and
parkinsonism. Tardive dyskinesia is another movement disorder associated with
antipsychotic exposure.
8. Which medication is commonly used as a medication-assisted treatment
option for opioid use disorder?
, A. Buprenorphine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Lamotrigine
D. Mirtazapine
Answer: A. Buprenorphine
Rationale: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist used in the treatment of
opioid use disorder. It can reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings when
appropriately prescribed and monitored.
9. Which medication is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced
respiratory depression?
A. Naloxone
B. Buspirone
C. Gabapentin
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: A. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone rapidly antagonizes opioid receptors and can reverse
opioid-induced respiratory depression. It is an important emergency medication
in suspected opioid overdose.
10. Which statement best describes an antagonist at a receptor?
A. It produces maximal receptor activation
B. It blocks or reduces the action of an agonist
C. It permanently destroys the receptor
D. It always produces a partial biologic response
Answer: B. It blocks or reduces the action of an agonist
Rationale: A receptor antagonist binds to a receptor without producing the
activating effect associated with an agonist and can prevent or reduce the
effects of an agonist.
11. Which neurotransmitter is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in
the central nervous system?
