EACVI AEPC CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE ECHOCARDIOGRA
EACVI AEPC CONGENITAL
HEART DISEASE
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO
CHD) PRACTICE EXAM
EACVI AEPC CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO | Comprehensive Examination
150 Verified Questions | 4 Core Domains | Current Academic Edition
Prepared by
PC CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO | Comprehensive E
EACVI AEPC CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO CHD) PRACTICE EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for EACVI AEPC CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO CHD) PRACTICE EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES Q&A INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF.. Every item uses a focused exam stem, four
response options, a keyed response, and a clear rationale,
making it easier to understand the subject, spot distractors, and
build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
Which of the following best explains why the subcostal short-axis view is
preferred for assessing the interatrial septum in an infant with suspected sinus
venosus atrial septal defect?
A. It aligns the ultrasound beam perpendicular to the septum, reducing
false dropout.
B. It provides the highest spatial resolution for measuring septal
thickness.
C. It allows simultaneous visualization of the coronary sinus and left
atrium.
D. It avoids interference from the thymus and ribs.
Correct Answer: A - It aligns the ultrasound beam perpendicular
to the septum, reducing false dropout.
RATIONALE
The subcostal short-axis view aligns the beam perpendicular to the
interatrial septum, minimizing artifactual dropout that can mimic a
defect. Other views may be limited by parallel beam orientation or
poor acoustic windows. This is critical for distinguishing true sinus
venosus defects from false-positive findings.
Question 2
A patient with repaired tetralogy of Fallot undergoes echocardiography. The
right ventricular outflow tract (RVOT) Doppler shows a peak velocity of 3.5
m/s and a diastolic deceleration time of 120 ms. What is the most likely
hemodynamic consequence?
A. Severe pulmonary regurgitation
B. Mild pulmonary stenosis
C. Right ventricular hypertension
D. Normal RVOT gradient
Correct Answer: A - Severe pulmonary regurgitation
Page 2
, RATIONALE
A peak velocity of 3.5 m/s suggests moderate stenosis, but the short
diastolic deceleration time (120 ms) indicates rapid equalization of
pressures, consistent with severe pulmonary regurgitation. This
combination is common after RVOT reconstruction. The other options
do not fit the Doppler profile.
Question 3
When performing a 3D transesophageal echocardiogram to guide device
closure of a secundum atrial septal defect, which parameter is most critical for
selecting the appropriate device size?
A. Maximal defect diameter in the aortic short-axis view
B. Defect area by planimetry in the en face view
C. Stretched balloon diameter under fluoroscopy
D. Distance from the defect to the coronary sinus
Correct Answer: B - Defect area by planimetry in the en face view
RATIONALE
3D en face planimetry provides accurate defect area and shape, which
correlates best with device size. Maximal diameter alone may
underestimate complex defects. Stretched balloon diameter is invasive
and less commonly used with 3D guidance. Coronary sinus distance is
important for avoiding impingement but not for sizing.
Question 4
In a patient with suspected Ebstein anomaly, which echocardiographic finding
is most specific for confirming the diagnosis?
A. Apical displacement of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve
B. Dilated right atrium with atrialized right ventricle
C. Moderate-to-severe tricuspid regurgitation
D. Right ventricular dilation with paradoxical septal motion
Page 3
, Correct Answer: A - Apical displacement of the septal leaflet of
the tricuspid valve
RATIONALE
Apical displacement of the septal tricuspid leaflet by >8 mm/m² is the
hallmark of Ebstein anomaly. While other findings are associated,
they are nonspecific. This displacement is the key diagnostic criterion
on echocardiography.
Question 5
A patient with transposition of the great arteries after an arterial switch
operation is evaluated for coronary artery patency. Which echocardiographic
modality provides the best non-invasive assessment of coronary ostial
stenosis?
A. Transthoracic 2D echocardiography with color Doppler
B. Transthoracic 3D echocardiography
C. Stress echocardiography
D. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography
Correct Answer: A - Transthoracic 2D echocardiography with
color Doppler
RATIONALE
Transthoracic 2D echocardiography with color Doppler can visualize
the coronary ostia and detect flow acceleration or turbulence
suggesting stenosis. 3D and stress echo are not primary tools for
coronary anatomy. Contrast echo may help but is not standard for
coronary assessment.
Question 6
Which of the following is the most reliable echocardiographic indicator of
significant left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in a patient with
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Page 4
EACVI AEPC CONGENITAL
HEART DISEASE
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO
CHD) PRACTICE EXAM
EACVI AEPC CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO | Comprehensive Examination
150 Verified Questions | 4 Core Domains | Current Academic Edition
Prepared by
PC CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO | Comprehensive E
EACVI AEPC CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO CHD) PRACTICE EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for EACVI AEPC CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (ECHO CHD) PRACTICE EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES Q&A INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF.. Every item uses a focused exam stem, four
response options, a keyed response, and a clear rationale,
making it easier to understand the subject, spot distractors, and
build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
Which of the following best explains why the subcostal short-axis view is
preferred for assessing the interatrial septum in an infant with suspected sinus
venosus atrial septal defect?
A. It aligns the ultrasound beam perpendicular to the septum, reducing
false dropout.
B. It provides the highest spatial resolution for measuring septal
thickness.
C. It allows simultaneous visualization of the coronary sinus and left
atrium.
D. It avoids interference from the thymus and ribs.
Correct Answer: A - It aligns the ultrasound beam perpendicular
to the septum, reducing false dropout.
RATIONALE
The subcostal short-axis view aligns the beam perpendicular to the
interatrial septum, minimizing artifactual dropout that can mimic a
defect. Other views may be limited by parallel beam orientation or
poor acoustic windows. This is critical for distinguishing true sinus
venosus defects from false-positive findings.
Question 2
A patient with repaired tetralogy of Fallot undergoes echocardiography. The
right ventricular outflow tract (RVOT) Doppler shows a peak velocity of 3.5
m/s and a diastolic deceleration time of 120 ms. What is the most likely
hemodynamic consequence?
A. Severe pulmonary regurgitation
B. Mild pulmonary stenosis
C. Right ventricular hypertension
D. Normal RVOT gradient
Correct Answer: A - Severe pulmonary regurgitation
Page 2
, RATIONALE
A peak velocity of 3.5 m/s suggests moderate stenosis, but the short
diastolic deceleration time (120 ms) indicates rapid equalization of
pressures, consistent with severe pulmonary regurgitation. This
combination is common after RVOT reconstruction. The other options
do not fit the Doppler profile.
Question 3
When performing a 3D transesophageal echocardiogram to guide device
closure of a secundum atrial septal defect, which parameter is most critical for
selecting the appropriate device size?
A. Maximal defect diameter in the aortic short-axis view
B. Defect area by planimetry in the en face view
C. Stretched balloon diameter under fluoroscopy
D. Distance from the defect to the coronary sinus
Correct Answer: B - Defect area by planimetry in the en face view
RATIONALE
3D en face planimetry provides accurate defect area and shape, which
correlates best with device size. Maximal diameter alone may
underestimate complex defects. Stretched balloon diameter is invasive
and less commonly used with 3D guidance. Coronary sinus distance is
important for avoiding impingement but not for sizing.
Question 4
In a patient with suspected Ebstein anomaly, which echocardiographic finding
is most specific for confirming the diagnosis?
A. Apical displacement of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve
B. Dilated right atrium with atrialized right ventricle
C. Moderate-to-severe tricuspid regurgitation
D. Right ventricular dilation with paradoxical septal motion
Page 3
, Correct Answer: A - Apical displacement of the septal leaflet of
the tricuspid valve
RATIONALE
Apical displacement of the septal tricuspid leaflet by >8 mm/m² is the
hallmark of Ebstein anomaly. While other findings are associated,
they are nonspecific. This displacement is the key diagnostic criterion
on echocardiography.
Question 5
A patient with transposition of the great arteries after an arterial switch
operation is evaluated for coronary artery patency. Which echocardiographic
modality provides the best non-invasive assessment of coronary ostial
stenosis?
A. Transthoracic 2D echocardiography with color Doppler
B. Transthoracic 3D echocardiography
C. Stress echocardiography
D. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography
Correct Answer: A - Transthoracic 2D echocardiography with
color Doppler
RATIONALE
Transthoracic 2D echocardiography with color Doppler can visualize
the coronary ostia and detect flow acceleration or turbulence
suggesting stenosis. 3D and stress echo are not primary tools for
coronary anatomy. Contrast echo may help but is not standard for
coronary assessment.
Question 6
Which of the following is the most reliable echocardiographic indicator of
significant left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in a patient with
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Page 4
