CJE MED SURG 1 EXAM NEWEST 2026/
2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| CJE
MED-SURG 1 EXAM REVIEW WITH REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT 100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES/GUARANTEED PASS
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Which finding
requires the nurse's priority action?
A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
B. Respiratory rate of 20/min
C. New onset of confusion
D. Productive cough with clear sputum
Answer: _C. New onset of confusion**_
Rationale: New confusion can indicate worsening hypoxemia or
carbon dioxide retention and requires prompt assessment. The
other findings can occur in clients with stable COPD.
,2. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of
breath and suddenly develops pink, frothy sputum. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position
C. Obtain the client's weight
D. Assist the client to ambulate
Answer: _B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position**_
Rationale: High-Fowler's positioning improves lung expansion
and decreases venous return, helping reduce pulmonary
congestion while additional interventions are initiated.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is awake, diaphoretic, and
trembling. The blood glucose is 52 mg/dL (2.9 mmol/L). What
should the nurse do first?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
C. Administer glucagon IM
D. Restrict oral intake
Answer: _B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate**_
Rationale: A conscious client with symptomatic hypoglycemia
should receive approximately 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate,
followed by reassessment of glucose.
,4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client with
a suspected pulmonary embolism?
A. Respiratory rate of 26/min
B. Sudden severe dyspnea
C. Mild anxiety
D. Temperature of 37.4°C
Answer: _B. Sudden severe dyspnea**_
Rationale: Sudden severe dyspnea is a classic manifestation of
pulmonary embolism and can indicate significant impairment of
pulmonary circulation.
5. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills,
fever, and low back pain. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Slow the transfusion
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Increase the transfusion rate
Answer: _B. Stop the transfusion**_
Rationale: These findings may indicate an acute transfusion
reaction. The transfusion should be stopped immediately, and
the IV should generally be maintained with compatible normal
saline according to facility protocol.
, 6. A client with acute kidney injury has a potassium level of 6.4
mEq/L (6.4 mmol/L). Which ECG finding should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Peaked T waves
B. Prolonged QT interval only
C. ST elevation in all leads
D. Narrowed QRS complexes
Answer: _A. Peaked T waves**_
Rationale: Hyperkalemia commonly causes tall, peaked T waves
and may progress to QRS widening, conduction abnormalities,
and life-threatening dysrhythmias.
7. Which finding in a client receiving furosemide requires the
nurse's immediate attention?
A. Urine output of 1,500 mL/day
B. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
D. Mild thirst
Answer: _B. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L**_
Rationale: Furosemide can cause potassium loss. Significant
hypokalemia increases the risk of dangerous cardiac
dysrhythmias.
2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| CJE
MED-SURG 1 EXAM REVIEW WITH REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT 100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES/GUARANTEED PASS
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Which finding
requires the nurse's priority action?
A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
B. Respiratory rate of 20/min
C. New onset of confusion
D. Productive cough with clear sputum
Answer: _C. New onset of confusion**_
Rationale: New confusion can indicate worsening hypoxemia or
carbon dioxide retention and requires prompt assessment. The
other findings can occur in clients with stable COPD.
,2. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of
breath and suddenly develops pink, frothy sputum. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position
C. Obtain the client's weight
D. Assist the client to ambulate
Answer: _B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position**_
Rationale: High-Fowler's positioning improves lung expansion
and decreases venous return, helping reduce pulmonary
congestion while additional interventions are initiated.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is awake, diaphoretic, and
trembling. The blood glucose is 52 mg/dL (2.9 mmol/L). What
should the nurse do first?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
C. Administer glucagon IM
D. Restrict oral intake
Answer: _B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate**_
Rationale: A conscious client with symptomatic hypoglycemia
should receive approximately 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate,
followed by reassessment of glucose.
,4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client with
a suspected pulmonary embolism?
A. Respiratory rate of 26/min
B. Sudden severe dyspnea
C. Mild anxiety
D. Temperature of 37.4°C
Answer: _B. Sudden severe dyspnea**_
Rationale: Sudden severe dyspnea is a classic manifestation of
pulmonary embolism and can indicate significant impairment of
pulmonary circulation.
5. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills,
fever, and low back pain. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Slow the transfusion
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Increase the transfusion rate
Answer: _B. Stop the transfusion**_
Rationale: These findings may indicate an acute transfusion
reaction. The transfusion should be stopped immediately, and
the IV should generally be maintained with compatible normal
saline according to facility protocol.
, 6. A client with acute kidney injury has a potassium level of 6.4
mEq/L (6.4 mmol/L). Which ECG finding should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Peaked T waves
B. Prolonged QT interval only
C. ST elevation in all leads
D. Narrowed QRS complexes
Answer: _A. Peaked T waves**_
Rationale: Hyperkalemia commonly causes tall, peaked T waves
and may progress to QRS widening, conduction abnormalities,
and life-threatening dysrhythmias.
7. Which finding in a client receiving furosemide requires the
nurse's immediate attention?
A. Urine output of 1,500 mL/day
B. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
D. Mild thirst
Answer: _B. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L**_
Rationale: Furosemide can cause potassium loss. Significant
hypokalemia increases the risk of dangerous cardiac
dysrhythmias.
