NSG 3500 Maternal Health
Exam 1-4 Questions and Answers| Galen College of Nursing
Q1. A nurse is teaching a client about the function of the corpus luteum. Which
statement best describes its role?
A. It produces progesterone to maintain the endometrium until the placenta takes
over.
B. It transports the fertilized ovum to the uterus.
C. It produces estrogen to trigger ovulation.
D. It forms the outer layer of the blastocyst.
Answer: A. It produces progesterone to maintain the endometrium until the placenta
takes over.
Rationale: The corpus luteum secretes progesterone (and some estrogen) to sustain the
endometrial lining during early pregnancy until the placenta is developed enough
(around 10-12 weeks) to take over hormone production.
Q2. Fertilization normally occurs in which part of the female reproductive tract?
A. Uterine fundus
B. Ampulla of the fallopian tube
C. Cervix
D. Vaginal fornix
Answer: B. Ampulla of the fallopian tube
Rationale: Fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla, the widest section of the fallopian
tube, within 24 hours of ovulation.
Q3. A client asks how twins occur when two separate eggs are fertilized. The nurse
explains this results in which type of twins?
, A. Monozygotic, monochorionic
B. Dizygotic, dichorionic
C. Monozygotic, diamniotic
D. Conjoined twins
Answer: B. Dizygotic, dichorionic
Rationale: Dizygotic (fraternal) twins result from fertilization of two separate ova by two
separate sperm, producing two chorions and two placentas (dichorionic).
Q4. Which structure is responsible for producing hCG, the hormone detected in
pregnancy tests?
A. Corpus luteum
B. Syncytiotrophoblast of the developing placenta
C. Fetal adrenal gland
D. Maternal pituitary gland
Answer: B. Syncytiotrophoblast of the developing placenta
Rationale: The syncytiotrophoblast cells of the trophoblast produce human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG), which maintains the corpus luteum early in pregnancy and is the
basis for pregnancy testing.
Q5. At which gestational age does the embryonic period end and the fetal period
begin?
A. 4 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 20 weeks
Answer: B. 8 weeks
Rationale: The embryonic period spans weeks 3-8, during which major organ systems
form (organogenesis). The fetal period begins at week 9 and continues to birth, focused
on growth and maturation.
Q6. A nurse assesses fetal heart tones with a Doppler for the first time. At what
gestational age can FHTs typically first be heard by Doppler?
A. 6-8 weeks
B. 10-12 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 20-24 weeks
,Answer: B. 10-12 weeks
Rationale: Fetal heart tones can usually be detected by handheld Doppler device at 10-
12 weeks gestation, whereas a fetoscope may not detect them until 18-20 weeks.
Q7. Which of the following is classified as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive serum hCG
B. Braxton Hicks contractions
C. Amenorrhea
D. Ballottement
Answer: C. Amenorrhea
Rationale: Presumptive signs are the least reliable and are reported by the woman
herself, such as amenorrhea, nausea, breast tenderness, and fatigue, since other
conditions can cause them.
Q8. Chadwick's sign, a probable sign of pregnancy, refers to which finding?
A. Softening of the cervix
B. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina
C. Palpable fetal outline
D. Fetal movement felt by examiner
Answer: B. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is the bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and
vulva caused by increased vascularity and blood flow, typically visible around 6-8 weeks
gestation.
Q9. Which finding is considered a positive (diagnostic) sign of pregnancy?
A. Uterine enlargement
B. Fetal heartbeat auscultated by examiner
C. Positive home pregnancy test
D. Quickening reported by the mother
Answer: B. Fetal heartbeat auscultated by examiner
Rationale: Positive signs can only be caused by the fetus itself and include fetal heart
tones auscultated by a healthcare provider, fetal movement palpated by an examiner,
and visualization of the fetus via ultrasound.
Q10. Using Naegele's rule, if a client's LMP was June 10, what is the estimated date of
delivery?
, A. March 3
B. March 17
C. April 17
D. February 17
Answer: B. March 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from the LMP and add 7 days (and add 1
year if needed). June 10 minus 3 months = March 10, plus 7 days = March 17.
Q11. A pregnant client's fundal height at 24 weeks should approximately correspond
to which measurement?
A. 16 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 24 cm
D. 28 cm
Answer: C. 24 cm
Rationale: Between 18-32 weeks, fundal height in centimeters generally correlates with
gestational age in weeks (McDonald's rule), so at 24 weeks the fundal height should be
about 24 cm.
Q12. Which prenatal laboratory test screens for neural tube defects and is typically
drawn between 15-20 weeks?
A. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
B. Glucose challenge test
C. Group B strep culture
D. Rubella titer
Answer: A. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
Rationale: MSAFP screening, ideally performed 16-18 weeks gestation, identifies
elevated AFP levels associated with neural tube defects like spina bifida and anencephaly,
or lowered levels associated with chromosomal abnormalities.
Q13. A client is scheduled for chorionic villus sampling (CVS). The nurse explains this
test is typically performed during which timeframe?
A. 6-8 weeks
B. 10-13 weeks
C. 16-20 weeks
D. After 24 weeks
Exam 1-4 Questions and Answers| Galen College of Nursing
Q1. A nurse is teaching a client about the function of the corpus luteum. Which
statement best describes its role?
A. It produces progesterone to maintain the endometrium until the placenta takes
over.
B. It transports the fertilized ovum to the uterus.
C. It produces estrogen to trigger ovulation.
D. It forms the outer layer of the blastocyst.
Answer: A. It produces progesterone to maintain the endometrium until the placenta
takes over.
Rationale: The corpus luteum secretes progesterone (and some estrogen) to sustain the
endometrial lining during early pregnancy until the placenta is developed enough
(around 10-12 weeks) to take over hormone production.
Q2. Fertilization normally occurs in which part of the female reproductive tract?
A. Uterine fundus
B. Ampulla of the fallopian tube
C. Cervix
D. Vaginal fornix
Answer: B. Ampulla of the fallopian tube
Rationale: Fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla, the widest section of the fallopian
tube, within 24 hours of ovulation.
Q3. A client asks how twins occur when two separate eggs are fertilized. The nurse
explains this results in which type of twins?
, A. Monozygotic, monochorionic
B. Dizygotic, dichorionic
C. Monozygotic, diamniotic
D. Conjoined twins
Answer: B. Dizygotic, dichorionic
Rationale: Dizygotic (fraternal) twins result from fertilization of two separate ova by two
separate sperm, producing two chorions and two placentas (dichorionic).
Q4. Which structure is responsible for producing hCG, the hormone detected in
pregnancy tests?
A. Corpus luteum
B. Syncytiotrophoblast of the developing placenta
C. Fetal adrenal gland
D. Maternal pituitary gland
Answer: B. Syncytiotrophoblast of the developing placenta
Rationale: The syncytiotrophoblast cells of the trophoblast produce human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG), which maintains the corpus luteum early in pregnancy and is the
basis for pregnancy testing.
Q5. At which gestational age does the embryonic period end and the fetal period
begin?
A. 4 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 20 weeks
Answer: B. 8 weeks
Rationale: The embryonic period spans weeks 3-8, during which major organ systems
form (organogenesis). The fetal period begins at week 9 and continues to birth, focused
on growth and maturation.
Q6. A nurse assesses fetal heart tones with a Doppler for the first time. At what
gestational age can FHTs typically first be heard by Doppler?
A. 6-8 weeks
B. 10-12 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 20-24 weeks
,Answer: B. 10-12 weeks
Rationale: Fetal heart tones can usually be detected by handheld Doppler device at 10-
12 weeks gestation, whereas a fetoscope may not detect them until 18-20 weeks.
Q7. Which of the following is classified as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive serum hCG
B. Braxton Hicks contractions
C. Amenorrhea
D. Ballottement
Answer: C. Amenorrhea
Rationale: Presumptive signs are the least reliable and are reported by the woman
herself, such as amenorrhea, nausea, breast tenderness, and fatigue, since other
conditions can cause them.
Q8. Chadwick's sign, a probable sign of pregnancy, refers to which finding?
A. Softening of the cervix
B. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina
C. Palpable fetal outline
D. Fetal movement felt by examiner
Answer: B. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is the bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and
vulva caused by increased vascularity and blood flow, typically visible around 6-8 weeks
gestation.
Q9. Which finding is considered a positive (diagnostic) sign of pregnancy?
A. Uterine enlargement
B. Fetal heartbeat auscultated by examiner
C. Positive home pregnancy test
D. Quickening reported by the mother
Answer: B. Fetal heartbeat auscultated by examiner
Rationale: Positive signs can only be caused by the fetus itself and include fetal heart
tones auscultated by a healthcare provider, fetal movement palpated by an examiner,
and visualization of the fetus via ultrasound.
Q10. Using Naegele's rule, if a client's LMP was June 10, what is the estimated date of
delivery?
, A. March 3
B. March 17
C. April 17
D. February 17
Answer: B. March 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from the LMP and add 7 days (and add 1
year if needed). June 10 minus 3 months = March 10, plus 7 days = March 17.
Q11. A pregnant client's fundal height at 24 weeks should approximately correspond
to which measurement?
A. 16 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 24 cm
D. 28 cm
Answer: C. 24 cm
Rationale: Between 18-32 weeks, fundal height in centimeters generally correlates with
gestational age in weeks (McDonald's rule), so at 24 weeks the fundal height should be
about 24 cm.
Q12. Which prenatal laboratory test screens for neural tube defects and is typically
drawn between 15-20 weeks?
A. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
B. Glucose challenge test
C. Group B strep culture
D. Rubella titer
Answer: A. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
Rationale: MSAFP screening, ideally performed 16-18 weeks gestation, identifies
elevated AFP levels associated with neural tube defects like spina bifida and anencephaly,
or lowered levels associated with chromosomal abnormalities.
Q13. A client is scheduled for chorionic villus sampling (CVS). The nurse explains this
test is typically performed during which timeframe?
A. 6-8 weeks
B. 10-13 weeks
C. 16-20 weeks
D. After 24 weeks
