ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING PROCTORED EXAM
2026/2027 – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A |
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A client who is 10 weeks pregnant asks the nurse when the fetal heart can
typically be detected using a handheld Doppler. Which response is most
appropriate?
A. By 6 weeks of pregnancy
B. By 8 weeks of pregnancy
C. By 10 to 12 weeks of pregnancy
D. By 16 to 18 weeks of pregnancy
Rationale: Fetal heart tones can commonly be detected with a handheld Doppler around 10 to
12 weeks of gestation. Earlier detection may be possible with ultrasound, but a handheld
Doppler generally requires a later gestational age.
2. A client reports a last menstrual period that began on March 15. Using Naegele’s
rule, which estimated date of delivery should the nurse calculate?
A. December 8
B. December 22
C. January 8
D. January 15
Rationale: Naegele’s rule adds 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period and subtracts
3 months, then adds 1 year. March 15 therefore corresponds to an estimated delivery date of
December 22.
3. Which finding is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Breast tenderness
D. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound
,Rationale: Positive signs are findings that can be attributed only to pregnancy. Visualization of
the fetus by ultrasound is a definitive sign, whereas amenorrhea and breast changes are
presumptive findings and a positive pregnancy test is a probable finding.
4. A pregnant client asks why folic acid is emphasized during the early weeks of
pregnancy. The nurse should explain that adequate folic acid primarily reduces
the risk of which complication?
A. Neural tube defects
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Placental abruption
D. Rh incompatibility
Rationale: Adequate folic acid intake before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the
risk of fetal neural tube defects such as spina bifida.
5. A client at 24 weeks of gestation asks about expected fetal movement. Which
statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. “Fetal movement should stop temporarily as the fetus grows.”
B. “You should expect movement to become consistently painful.”
C. “You should become familiar with your baby’s usual movement pattern.”
D. “Fetal movement is not clinically significant until labor begins.”
Rationale: Fetal movement patterns provide useful information about fetal well-being. Clients
should become familiar with their fetus’s usual activity and report significant decreases or
changes according to their provider’s instructions.
6. During a prenatal visit, which finding should the nurse recognize as a possible
indication of preeclampsia?
A. Urinary frequency
B. Mild dependent edema at the end of the day
C. Increased appetite
D. New-onset hypertension with proteinuria
,Rationale: New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of pregnancy accompanied by proteinuria is
concerning for preeclampsia. Mild physiologic changes such as urinary frequency or dependent
edema can occur in uncomplicated pregnancy.
7. A pregnant client asks which food provides a particularly good source of iron.
Which choice should the nurse recommend?
A. Lean beef
B. White rice
C. Applesauce
D. Lettuce
Rationale: Lean red meat provides heme iron, which is readily absorbed. Iron requirements
increase during pregnancy because of expanded maternal blood volume and fetal needs.
8. A client who is 30 weeks pregnant reports severe headache, blurred vision, and
epigastric pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage the client to rest at home.
B. Recommend increasing oral fluids.
C. Notify the health care provider promptly.
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are expected.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric or right-upper-quadrant pain
can indicate severe preeclampsia and require prompt evaluation. These symptoms should not be
dismissed as normal pregnancy discomforts.
9. Which assessment finding is most consistent with gestational diabetes mellitus?
A. Persistent hypothermia
B. Elevated blood glucose during pregnancy
C. Decreased fetal growth caused by inadequate maternal glucose
D. Maternal hypoglycemia after every meal
Rationale: Gestational diabetes is characterized by glucose intolerance first recognized during
pregnancy. Maternal hyperglycemia can increase the risk of fetal overgrowth and other
maternal and neonatal complications.
, 10. A pregnant client with gestational diabetes asks why controlling blood glucose is
important. Which complication is the nurse primarily helping prevent?
A. Neural tube closure
B. Maternal Rh sensitization
C. Oligohydramnios caused by fetal renal failure
D. Fetal macrosomia
Rationale: Maternal hyperglycemia increases fetal insulin production and can promote excessive
fetal growth, resulting in macrosomia. Good glucose control reduces this and other
complications.
11. A client at 34 weeks of gestation reports painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding.
Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding during
the second or third trimester. Placental abruption more commonly produces painful bleeding
accompanied by uterine tenderness or rigidity.
12. A client with suspected placenta previa is admitted with vaginal bleeding. Which
intervention should the nurse avoid?
A. Monitoring maternal vital signs
B. Assessing fetal heart rate
C. Performing a digital vaginal examination
D. Monitoring the amount of vaginal bleeding
Rationale: A digital vaginal examination can disrupt a placenta covering or near the cervical
opening and cause severe hemorrhage. Vaginal examinations are avoided until placenta previa
has been excluded.
2026/2027 – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A |
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A client who is 10 weeks pregnant asks the nurse when the fetal heart can
typically be detected using a handheld Doppler. Which response is most
appropriate?
A. By 6 weeks of pregnancy
B. By 8 weeks of pregnancy
C. By 10 to 12 weeks of pregnancy
D. By 16 to 18 weeks of pregnancy
Rationale: Fetal heart tones can commonly be detected with a handheld Doppler around 10 to
12 weeks of gestation. Earlier detection may be possible with ultrasound, but a handheld
Doppler generally requires a later gestational age.
2. A client reports a last menstrual period that began on March 15. Using Naegele’s
rule, which estimated date of delivery should the nurse calculate?
A. December 8
B. December 22
C. January 8
D. January 15
Rationale: Naegele’s rule adds 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period and subtracts
3 months, then adds 1 year. March 15 therefore corresponds to an estimated delivery date of
December 22.
3. Which finding is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Breast tenderness
D. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound
,Rationale: Positive signs are findings that can be attributed only to pregnancy. Visualization of
the fetus by ultrasound is a definitive sign, whereas amenorrhea and breast changes are
presumptive findings and a positive pregnancy test is a probable finding.
4. A pregnant client asks why folic acid is emphasized during the early weeks of
pregnancy. The nurse should explain that adequate folic acid primarily reduces
the risk of which complication?
A. Neural tube defects
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Placental abruption
D. Rh incompatibility
Rationale: Adequate folic acid intake before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the
risk of fetal neural tube defects such as spina bifida.
5. A client at 24 weeks of gestation asks about expected fetal movement. Which
statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. “Fetal movement should stop temporarily as the fetus grows.”
B. “You should expect movement to become consistently painful.”
C. “You should become familiar with your baby’s usual movement pattern.”
D. “Fetal movement is not clinically significant until labor begins.”
Rationale: Fetal movement patterns provide useful information about fetal well-being. Clients
should become familiar with their fetus’s usual activity and report significant decreases or
changes according to their provider’s instructions.
6. During a prenatal visit, which finding should the nurse recognize as a possible
indication of preeclampsia?
A. Urinary frequency
B. Mild dependent edema at the end of the day
C. Increased appetite
D. New-onset hypertension with proteinuria
,Rationale: New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of pregnancy accompanied by proteinuria is
concerning for preeclampsia. Mild physiologic changes such as urinary frequency or dependent
edema can occur in uncomplicated pregnancy.
7. A pregnant client asks which food provides a particularly good source of iron.
Which choice should the nurse recommend?
A. Lean beef
B. White rice
C. Applesauce
D. Lettuce
Rationale: Lean red meat provides heme iron, which is readily absorbed. Iron requirements
increase during pregnancy because of expanded maternal blood volume and fetal needs.
8. A client who is 30 weeks pregnant reports severe headache, blurred vision, and
epigastric pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage the client to rest at home.
B. Recommend increasing oral fluids.
C. Notify the health care provider promptly.
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are expected.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric or right-upper-quadrant pain
can indicate severe preeclampsia and require prompt evaluation. These symptoms should not be
dismissed as normal pregnancy discomforts.
9. Which assessment finding is most consistent with gestational diabetes mellitus?
A. Persistent hypothermia
B. Elevated blood glucose during pregnancy
C. Decreased fetal growth caused by inadequate maternal glucose
D. Maternal hypoglycemia after every meal
Rationale: Gestational diabetes is characterized by glucose intolerance first recognized during
pregnancy. Maternal hyperglycemia can increase the risk of fetal overgrowth and other
maternal and neonatal complications.
, 10. A pregnant client with gestational diabetes asks why controlling blood glucose is
important. Which complication is the nurse primarily helping prevent?
A. Neural tube closure
B. Maternal Rh sensitization
C. Oligohydramnios caused by fetal renal failure
D. Fetal macrosomia
Rationale: Maternal hyperglycemia increases fetal insulin production and can promote excessive
fetal growth, resulting in macrosomia. Good glucose control reduces this and other
complications.
11. A client at 34 weeks of gestation reports painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding.
Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding during
the second or third trimester. Placental abruption more commonly produces painful bleeding
accompanied by uterine tenderness or rigidity.
12. A client with suspected placenta previa is admitted with vaginal bleeding. Which
intervention should the nurse avoid?
A. Monitoring maternal vital signs
B. Assessing fetal heart rate
C. Performing a digital vaginal examination
D. Monitoring the amount of vaginal bleeding
Rationale: A digital vaginal examination can disrupt a placenta covering or near the cervical
opening and cause severe hemorrhage. Vaginal examinations are avoided until placenta previa
has been excluded.
