FNP Exam Questions with Correct Answers (Grade A+)
Question 1: A young adult patient presents to the clinic with concerns about a skin infection. The
patient reports no tenderness or drainage and states the rash started after participating in a wrestling
tournament. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner finds plaques with crusting on the right lower
leg. A culture is done and shows a Staphylococcus aureus infection. Which bacterial skin infection does
the nurse practitioner suspect?
a) impetigo
b) folliculitis
c) Herpes gladiatorum
d) Hidradenitis suppurativa
Answer: Impetigo - Nonbullous impetigo, an S. aureus infection, occurs in a localized area that initially
begins as papules and progresses to vesicles, pustules, and then honey-colored plaques.
Question 2: In performing a neurological exam and assessing the patient's cranial nerves, the nurse
practitioner notes fasciculations across the tongue's surface. Which nerve is affected?
a) CN VI (abducens)
b) CN XII (hypoglossal)
c) CN XI (accessory)
d) CN X (vagus)
Answer: Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) - Cranial nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve and allows motor
movement of the tongue muscles. This nerve is tested by asking the patient to stick out the tongue and
observing for atrophy, fasciculations, and tongue deviation to one side.
Question 3: A 34-week pregnant patient presents to the emergency room with sudden onset of
abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Which condition is most likely?
a) placental abruption
b) ectopic pregnancy
c) Miscarriage
d) Placenta previa
Answer: Placental abruption - Placental abruption is the early separation of the placenta from the lining of
the uterus. It is a rare but serious complication of the second half of pregnancy. Placental abruption is an
emergency situation that places the well-being of the mother and fetus at risk.
Question 4: Which is a common causative organism of pelvic inflammatory disease?
a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Mycoplasma genitalium
Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae - Gonorrhea and chlamydia are the most common organisms causing pelvic
inflammatory disease.
Page 1
,Question 5: A middle-aged patient presents to the clinic for evaluation of new-onset hypertension and
occasional flank pain. There is a family history of a maternal grandmother deceased with "some kind
of kidney problem", and an in-office urinalysis is positive for 3 plus protein. In addition to addressing
hypertension, which is the next appropriate step in the management of this patient?
a) refer for genetic testing
b) restrict all protein in diet
c) repeat urinalysis in 3 months
d) order a renal US
Answer: Order a renal ultrasound - This patient has a positive family history of renal disease, flank pain,
and proteinuria, all of which are indicators of polycystic kidney disease. The hypertension should be treated
and a renal ultrasound ordered. An ultrasound of the kidneys is the preferred diagnostic test.
Question 6: An older adult patient with hypertension, depression, and diabetes mellitus type 2 is
experiencing periods of intermittent confusion. A cognitive assessment does not demonstrate
impairment. Current medications include aspirin, lisinopril (Zestril), atorvastatin (Lipitor), metformin
(Glucophage), sertraline (Zoloft), diphenhydramine (Benadryl) as needed for sleep and acetaminophen
(Tylenol) as needed for pain. Which is the best action?
a) discontinue sertraline (zoloft)
b) Increase sertraline
c) prescribe donepezil (aricept)
d) discontinue diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Answer: Discontinue diphenhydramine (Benadryl) - Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is a first-generation
antihistamine for allergic reactions, cold symptoms, and insomnia. Because of its potent anticholinergic
properties, adverse effects are common and include disorientation, blurry vision, constipation, and urinary
retention. Anticholinergic medications can cause significant adverse effects in older adults.
Question 7: An adult patient who is a farmer presents to the clinic after being bitten by a pig. Which
antibiotic is the best for prophylaxis?
a) amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
b) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
c) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
d) Clindamycin (Cleocin)
Answer: Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) *Bitten Give Augmentin - Amoxicillin-clavulanate
(Augmentin) is the preferred agent after an animal bite because of its broad coverage.
Page 2
,Question 8: Which skin disease is Auspitz sign used to differentiate from other skin disorders
a) contact dermatitis
b) tinea corporis
c) psoriasis
d) scabies
Answer: Psoriasis - Forcible removal of the scales of a psoriatic lesion results in pinpoint bleeding known as
Auspitz sign and is used in the differential diagnosis of psoriasis.
Question 9: When prescribing genetic screening in early pregnancy, a nurse practitioner understands
patients of which ethnicity are at greatest risk for Tay-Sachs disease
a) African
b) Asian
c) Ashkenazi Jewish
d) European
Answer: Ashkenazi Jewish - Screening for Tay-Sachs disease should be offered if one or both partners are
of Ashkenazi Jewish, French-Canadian, or Cajun descent.
Question 10: An older adult patient presents to the clinic with a report of a bump on the left hand. The
patient reports being unable to fully extend the ring finger for about one year. Physical examination
reveals a palpable cord of tissue distal to the palmar crease and extending to the base of the finger.
Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a) gamekeeper thumb
b) de quervain tenosynovitis
c) dupuytren contracture
d) osteoarthritis
Answer: Dupuytren contracture - Dupuytren contracture is a flexion contracture of the finger due to palmar
fibroproliferative disease of the palmar fascia.
Question 11: The urinalysis of a 23-year-old female patient, with symptoms of a urinary tract infection
and history of two UTIs in the last year, shows WBCs and nitrites. Which is the most important test to
obtain?
a) urine culture and sensitivity
b) CT scan
c) STI testing
d) cystoscopy
Answer: Urine culture and sensitivity - Identifying the specific bacteria and confirming the susceptibility of
the antibiotic to treat the infection is essential.
Page 3
, Question 12: An adult patient presenting for a wellness check has a family history of dementia and is
requesting education about preventing this disease. Which statement is correct regarding reducing the
risk of dementia?
a) "Lifestyle factors can affect the vascular health of your brain and help decrease the risk of dementia"
b) "Implementing a high-fat and high-protein diet can help preserve the health of the brain"
c) Supplementing with B vitamins can help prevent dementia"
d) "The risk factors for dementia are non-modifiable"
Answer: "Lifestyle factors can affect the vascular health of your brain and help decrease the risk of
dementia" - Vascular brain health is extremely important to maintain neurological health and prevent
cognitive decline. Lifestyle factors can help preserve brain health and decrease the risk of dementia.
Question 13: According to the CDC, how often should men who have sex with men be screened for
HIV?
a) monthly
b) only with known exposure
c) with every new partner
d) annually
Answer: Annually - The CDC (2021) recommends that men who have sex with men be screened for HIV at
least annually.
Question 14: An older adult patient presents to the clinic with symptoms of lumbar disc herniation that
have not improved with conservative measures. In taking the patient history, the nurse practitioner
learns that the patient had a pacemaker placed "a long time ago." The patient does not have
information on which type of pacemaker was inserted. Which imaging test should the nurse
practitioner order to evaluate this patient's symptoms?
a) spinal x-ray
b) MRI
c) CT
d) electromyography (EMG)
Answer: Computerized tomography (CT) - CT is not as specific as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
when evaluating for suspected disc herniation, but when MRI is contraindicated due to a pacemaker or
spinal cord stimulator, CT is used.
Page 4
Question 1: A young adult patient presents to the clinic with concerns about a skin infection. The
patient reports no tenderness or drainage and states the rash started after participating in a wrestling
tournament. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner finds plaques with crusting on the right lower
leg. A culture is done and shows a Staphylococcus aureus infection. Which bacterial skin infection does
the nurse practitioner suspect?
a) impetigo
b) folliculitis
c) Herpes gladiatorum
d) Hidradenitis suppurativa
Answer: Impetigo - Nonbullous impetigo, an S. aureus infection, occurs in a localized area that initially
begins as papules and progresses to vesicles, pustules, and then honey-colored plaques.
Question 2: In performing a neurological exam and assessing the patient's cranial nerves, the nurse
practitioner notes fasciculations across the tongue's surface. Which nerve is affected?
a) CN VI (abducens)
b) CN XII (hypoglossal)
c) CN XI (accessory)
d) CN X (vagus)
Answer: Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) - Cranial nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve and allows motor
movement of the tongue muscles. This nerve is tested by asking the patient to stick out the tongue and
observing for atrophy, fasciculations, and tongue deviation to one side.
Question 3: A 34-week pregnant patient presents to the emergency room with sudden onset of
abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Which condition is most likely?
a) placental abruption
b) ectopic pregnancy
c) Miscarriage
d) Placenta previa
Answer: Placental abruption - Placental abruption is the early separation of the placenta from the lining of
the uterus. It is a rare but serious complication of the second half of pregnancy. Placental abruption is an
emergency situation that places the well-being of the mother and fetus at risk.
Question 4: Which is a common causative organism of pelvic inflammatory disease?
a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Mycoplasma genitalium
Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae - Gonorrhea and chlamydia are the most common organisms causing pelvic
inflammatory disease.
Page 1
,Question 5: A middle-aged patient presents to the clinic for evaluation of new-onset hypertension and
occasional flank pain. There is a family history of a maternal grandmother deceased with "some kind
of kidney problem", and an in-office urinalysis is positive for 3 plus protein. In addition to addressing
hypertension, which is the next appropriate step in the management of this patient?
a) refer for genetic testing
b) restrict all protein in diet
c) repeat urinalysis in 3 months
d) order a renal US
Answer: Order a renal ultrasound - This patient has a positive family history of renal disease, flank pain,
and proteinuria, all of which are indicators of polycystic kidney disease. The hypertension should be treated
and a renal ultrasound ordered. An ultrasound of the kidneys is the preferred diagnostic test.
Question 6: An older adult patient with hypertension, depression, and diabetes mellitus type 2 is
experiencing periods of intermittent confusion. A cognitive assessment does not demonstrate
impairment. Current medications include aspirin, lisinopril (Zestril), atorvastatin (Lipitor), metformin
(Glucophage), sertraline (Zoloft), diphenhydramine (Benadryl) as needed for sleep and acetaminophen
(Tylenol) as needed for pain. Which is the best action?
a) discontinue sertraline (zoloft)
b) Increase sertraline
c) prescribe donepezil (aricept)
d) discontinue diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Answer: Discontinue diphenhydramine (Benadryl) - Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is a first-generation
antihistamine for allergic reactions, cold symptoms, and insomnia. Because of its potent anticholinergic
properties, adverse effects are common and include disorientation, blurry vision, constipation, and urinary
retention. Anticholinergic medications can cause significant adverse effects in older adults.
Question 7: An adult patient who is a farmer presents to the clinic after being bitten by a pig. Which
antibiotic is the best for prophylaxis?
a) amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
b) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
c) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
d) Clindamycin (Cleocin)
Answer: Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) *Bitten Give Augmentin - Amoxicillin-clavulanate
(Augmentin) is the preferred agent after an animal bite because of its broad coverage.
Page 2
,Question 8: Which skin disease is Auspitz sign used to differentiate from other skin disorders
a) contact dermatitis
b) tinea corporis
c) psoriasis
d) scabies
Answer: Psoriasis - Forcible removal of the scales of a psoriatic lesion results in pinpoint bleeding known as
Auspitz sign and is used in the differential diagnosis of psoriasis.
Question 9: When prescribing genetic screening in early pregnancy, a nurse practitioner understands
patients of which ethnicity are at greatest risk for Tay-Sachs disease
a) African
b) Asian
c) Ashkenazi Jewish
d) European
Answer: Ashkenazi Jewish - Screening for Tay-Sachs disease should be offered if one or both partners are
of Ashkenazi Jewish, French-Canadian, or Cajun descent.
Question 10: An older adult patient presents to the clinic with a report of a bump on the left hand. The
patient reports being unable to fully extend the ring finger for about one year. Physical examination
reveals a palpable cord of tissue distal to the palmar crease and extending to the base of the finger.
Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a) gamekeeper thumb
b) de quervain tenosynovitis
c) dupuytren contracture
d) osteoarthritis
Answer: Dupuytren contracture - Dupuytren contracture is a flexion contracture of the finger due to palmar
fibroproliferative disease of the palmar fascia.
Question 11: The urinalysis of a 23-year-old female patient, with symptoms of a urinary tract infection
and history of two UTIs in the last year, shows WBCs and nitrites. Which is the most important test to
obtain?
a) urine culture and sensitivity
b) CT scan
c) STI testing
d) cystoscopy
Answer: Urine culture and sensitivity - Identifying the specific bacteria and confirming the susceptibility of
the antibiotic to treat the infection is essential.
Page 3
, Question 12: An adult patient presenting for a wellness check has a family history of dementia and is
requesting education about preventing this disease. Which statement is correct regarding reducing the
risk of dementia?
a) "Lifestyle factors can affect the vascular health of your brain and help decrease the risk of dementia"
b) "Implementing a high-fat and high-protein diet can help preserve the health of the brain"
c) Supplementing with B vitamins can help prevent dementia"
d) "The risk factors for dementia are non-modifiable"
Answer: "Lifestyle factors can affect the vascular health of your brain and help decrease the risk of
dementia" - Vascular brain health is extremely important to maintain neurological health and prevent
cognitive decline. Lifestyle factors can help preserve brain health and decrease the risk of dementia.
Question 13: According to the CDC, how often should men who have sex with men be screened for
HIV?
a) monthly
b) only with known exposure
c) with every new partner
d) annually
Answer: Annually - The CDC (2021) recommends that men who have sex with men be screened for HIV at
least annually.
Question 14: An older adult patient presents to the clinic with symptoms of lumbar disc herniation that
have not improved with conservative measures. In taking the patient history, the nurse practitioner
learns that the patient had a pacemaker placed "a long time ago." The patient does not have
information on which type of pacemaker was inserted. Which imaging test should the nurse
practitioner order to evaluate this patient's symptoms?
a) spinal x-ray
b) MRI
c) CT
d) electromyography (EMG)
Answer: Computerized tomography (CT) - CT is not as specific as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
when evaluating for suspected disc herniation, but when MRI is contraindicated due to a pacemaker or
spinal cord stimulator, CT is used.
Page 4
