NSG 3500 Exam 1 Questions and 100% Correct Answers 2026/27
Update – Galen College of Nursing
1. A pregnant client asks, “How soon can we find out the sex of the baby?” Which response by the
nurse is most appropriate?
A. “The baby’s sex is usually identifiable at about 8 weeks.”
B. “The baby’s sex can often be determined at about 12 weeks.”
C. “The baby’s sex cannot be determined until about 20 weeks.”
D. “The baby’s sex is only confirmed after birth.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should teach that fetal sex can often be determined at approximately 12
weeks’ gestation, depending on fetal position and the imaging method used. Option A is incorrect
because 8 weeks is generally too early for reliable sex determination. Option C is incorrect because
20 weeks is a common time for the full anatomy scan, but sex may be identifiable earlier than that.
Option D is incorrect because fetal sex is commonly identified prenatally through ultrasound and
other testing methods.
2. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client with a history of a spinal cord injury at the T6 level. The
client asks, “Does this mean I can’t have a vaginal delivery?” Which response by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. “A spinal cord injury means you will require a cesarean birth.”
B. “Vaginal delivery is possible at the T6 level, but you will need close monitoring during labor.”
C. “Vaginal birth is only possible if your injury is below the T12 level.”
D. “Because you cannot feel contractions, your labor will not progress normally.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A spinal cord injury does not automatically prevent vaginal delivery. A client with an injury
at the T6 level may still be able to deliver vaginally, but careful monitoring is required due to risks
such as autonomic dysreflexia and altered perception of labor signs. Choice A is incorrect because
cesarean delivery is not automatically required solely due to a spinal cord injury. Choice C is
incorrect because the ability to deliver vaginally is not determined strictly by being below T12.
Choice D is incorrect because even if sensation is impaired, uterine contractions and cervical
dilation can still occur and labor can progress.
3. A pregnant client reports frequent pyrosis (heartburn) after eating. Which teaching should
the nurse include? Select all that apply.
NSG 3500 Exam 1
,A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Lie down immediately after meals to reduce stomach pressure
C. Remain upright for at least 1 hour after eating
D. Avoid antacids as much as possible
E. Drink large amounts of fluid with meals to decrease reflux
F. Eat spicy or greasy foods to stimulate digestion
Correct answer: A, C, D
Rationale: Heartburn in pregnancy is common due to slowed GI motility and upward pressure from
the growing uterus. Teaching should include small, frequent meals (A) and remaining upright after
meals to reduce reflux (C). Clients should also be taught to avoid excessive antacid use unless
recommended by the provider, because overuse can interfere with digestion and may affect
absorption of certain nutrients/medications (D).
Choice B is incorrect because lying down right after eating increases reflux. Choice E is incorrect
because large fluid intake with meals can increase gastric volume and worsen symptoms. Choice
F is incorrect because spicy/greasy foods commonly aggravate pyrosis.
4. A nurse is performing a pelvic examination on a client with a suspected early pregnancy. Which
finding should the nurse document as Goodell’s sign?
A. Softening of the cervix that feels like the earlobe
B. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa
C. Softening of the lower uterine segment between the cervix and fundus
D. Firm cervix that feels like the tip of the nose
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Goodell’s sign refers to softening of the cervix in early pregnancy, and it is often described
as feeling similar to an earlobe (soft) on palpation. Choice B is incorrect because bluish
discoloration of the cervix/vaginal mucosa is Chadwick’s sign. Choice C is incorrect because
softening of the lower uterine segment is Hegar’s sign. Choice D is incorrect because a cervix that
feels firm like the tip of the nose is more consistent with a nonpregnant cervix.
5. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client for possible preeclampsia. Which findings are
consistent with this condition? Select all that apply.
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Right upper quadrant (RUǪ) pain
D. Generalized edema
E. Proteinuria
F. Hypovolemia
NSG 3500 Exam 1
, G. Severe headache
H. Polyuria with low urine specific gravity
Correct answer: A, B, C, D, E, F, G
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and evidence of end-organ involvement.
Common findings include HTN (A), hyperreflexia (B) from CNS irritability, RUǪ pain (C) which can
reflect liver involvement, edema (D), and proteinuria (E). The client may demonstrate signs of
intravascular volume depletion (hypovolemia) despite swelling, due to endothelial damage and fluid
shifting into tissues (F). Severe headache
(G) is a concerning CNS symptom and may signal worsening disease. Choice H is incorrect because
preeclampsia is more associated with decreased renal perfusion/possible decreased urine
output rather than polyuria with dilute urine.
6. A nurse is assisting with an early prenatal examination. Which finding should the nurse
recognize as Chadwick’s sign?
A. Softening of the cervix that feels like an earlobe
B. Bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa
C. Softening of the lower uterine segment between the cervix and fundus
D. Visualization of a gestational sac by ultrasound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chadwick’s sign is a bluish-purple tint of the cervix and vaginal mucosa caused by
increased vascularity during early pregnancy. Choice A describes Goodell’s sign. Choice C describes
Hegar’s sign. Choice D is a positive sign of pregnancy, not a probable sign like Chadwick’s.
7. A nurse is reviewing obstetric terminology during a prenatal intake appointment. Which client
is considered a primigravida?
A. A woman who is pregnant for the first time
B. A woman who has delivered one baby at term
C. A woman who has had two pregnancies and one miscarriage
D. A woman who is pregnant with twins
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A primigravida is a woman who is pregnant for the first time, regardless of gestational age.
Choice B describes a woman who is primiparous (has delivered once). Choice C describes a
multigravida (more than one pregnancy). Choice D refers to multiple gestation but does not define
gravidity status.
NSG 3500 Exam 1
Update – Galen College of Nursing
1. A pregnant client asks, “How soon can we find out the sex of the baby?” Which response by the
nurse is most appropriate?
A. “The baby’s sex is usually identifiable at about 8 weeks.”
B. “The baby’s sex can often be determined at about 12 weeks.”
C. “The baby’s sex cannot be determined until about 20 weeks.”
D. “The baby’s sex is only confirmed after birth.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should teach that fetal sex can often be determined at approximately 12
weeks’ gestation, depending on fetal position and the imaging method used. Option A is incorrect
because 8 weeks is generally too early for reliable sex determination. Option C is incorrect because
20 weeks is a common time for the full anatomy scan, but sex may be identifiable earlier than that.
Option D is incorrect because fetal sex is commonly identified prenatally through ultrasound and
other testing methods.
2. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client with a history of a spinal cord injury at the T6 level. The
client asks, “Does this mean I can’t have a vaginal delivery?” Which response by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. “A spinal cord injury means you will require a cesarean birth.”
B. “Vaginal delivery is possible at the T6 level, but you will need close monitoring during labor.”
C. “Vaginal birth is only possible if your injury is below the T12 level.”
D. “Because you cannot feel contractions, your labor will not progress normally.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A spinal cord injury does not automatically prevent vaginal delivery. A client with an injury
at the T6 level may still be able to deliver vaginally, but careful monitoring is required due to risks
such as autonomic dysreflexia and altered perception of labor signs. Choice A is incorrect because
cesarean delivery is not automatically required solely due to a spinal cord injury. Choice C is
incorrect because the ability to deliver vaginally is not determined strictly by being below T12.
Choice D is incorrect because even if sensation is impaired, uterine contractions and cervical
dilation can still occur and labor can progress.
3. A pregnant client reports frequent pyrosis (heartburn) after eating. Which teaching should
the nurse include? Select all that apply.
NSG 3500 Exam 1
,A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Lie down immediately after meals to reduce stomach pressure
C. Remain upright for at least 1 hour after eating
D. Avoid antacids as much as possible
E. Drink large amounts of fluid with meals to decrease reflux
F. Eat spicy or greasy foods to stimulate digestion
Correct answer: A, C, D
Rationale: Heartburn in pregnancy is common due to slowed GI motility and upward pressure from
the growing uterus. Teaching should include small, frequent meals (A) and remaining upright after
meals to reduce reflux (C). Clients should also be taught to avoid excessive antacid use unless
recommended by the provider, because overuse can interfere with digestion and may affect
absorption of certain nutrients/medications (D).
Choice B is incorrect because lying down right after eating increases reflux. Choice E is incorrect
because large fluid intake with meals can increase gastric volume and worsen symptoms. Choice
F is incorrect because spicy/greasy foods commonly aggravate pyrosis.
4. A nurse is performing a pelvic examination on a client with a suspected early pregnancy. Which
finding should the nurse document as Goodell’s sign?
A. Softening of the cervix that feels like the earlobe
B. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa
C. Softening of the lower uterine segment between the cervix and fundus
D. Firm cervix that feels like the tip of the nose
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Goodell’s sign refers to softening of the cervix in early pregnancy, and it is often described
as feeling similar to an earlobe (soft) on palpation. Choice B is incorrect because bluish
discoloration of the cervix/vaginal mucosa is Chadwick’s sign. Choice C is incorrect because
softening of the lower uterine segment is Hegar’s sign. Choice D is incorrect because a cervix that
feels firm like the tip of the nose is more consistent with a nonpregnant cervix.
5. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client for possible preeclampsia. Which findings are
consistent with this condition? Select all that apply.
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Right upper quadrant (RUǪ) pain
D. Generalized edema
E. Proteinuria
F. Hypovolemia
NSG 3500 Exam 1
, G. Severe headache
H. Polyuria with low urine specific gravity
Correct answer: A, B, C, D, E, F, G
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and evidence of end-organ involvement.
Common findings include HTN (A), hyperreflexia (B) from CNS irritability, RUǪ pain (C) which can
reflect liver involvement, edema (D), and proteinuria (E). The client may demonstrate signs of
intravascular volume depletion (hypovolemia) despite swelling, due to endothelial damage and fluid
shifting into tissues (F). Severe headache
(G) is a concerning CNS symptom and may signal worsening disease. Choice H is incorrect because
preeclampsia is more associated with decreased renal perfusion/possible decreased urine
output rather than polyuria with dilute urine.
6. A nurse is assisting with an early prenatal examination. Which finding should the nurse
recognize as Chadwick’s sign?
A. Softening of the cervix that feels like an earlobe
B. Bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa
C. Softening of the lower uterine segment between the cervix and fundus
D. Visualization of a gestational sac by ultrasound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chadwick’s sign is a bluish-purple tint of the cervix and vaginal mucosa caused by
increased vascularity during early pregnancy. Choice A describes Goodell’s sign. Choice C describes
Hegar’s sign. Choice D is a positive sign of pregnancy, not a probable sign like Chadwick’s.
7. A nurse is reviewing obstetric terminology during a prenatal intake appointment. Which client
is considered a primigravida?
A. A woman who is pregnant for the first time
B. A woman who has delivered one baby at term
C. A woman who has had two pregnancies and one miscarriage
D. A woman who is pregnant with twins
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A primigravida is a woman who is pregnant for the first time, regardless of gestational age.
Choice B describes a woman who is primiparous (has delivered once). Choice C describes a
multigravida (more than one pregnancy). Choice D refers to multiple gestation but does not define
gravidity status.
NSG 3500 Exam 1
