NR667/ NR 667 Advanced FNP Primary Care & Exit Exam Practice Test | Complete Actual Exam with Verified Answers and Detailed Rationales | Latest Update -2026/2027 |Chamberlain University | Already Graded A+

NR667/ NR 667 Advanced FNP Primary Care & Exit
Exam Practice Test | Complete Actual Exam with
Verified Answers and Detailed Rationales | Latest
Update -2026/2027 |Chamberlain University | Already
Graded A+

Exam Overview: This practice test covers the NR667 Exit Exam for FNP students
at Chamberlain University. The content spans advanced health assessment,
diagnostic reasoning, differential diagnosis, pharmacology, and management
across the lifespan. Answers and detailed rationales are provided for each
question.

Question 1
A 41-year-old has back spasms aggravated by poor seating at work. Which agent is
appropriate short-term for muscle spasms?
A. Methocarbamol
B. Terbutaline
C. Dantrolene
D. Cyclobenzaprine
Answer: D
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant indicated
for short-term treatment of muscle spasms associated with musculoskeletal
conditions. It is commonly used for back spasms. Methocarbamol is also a muscle
relaxant but cyclobenzaprine is more commonly prescribed for this indication.
Terbutaline is a beta-agonist for asthma. Dantrolene is used for malignant
hyperthermia and spasticity.
Source: NR667 Exit Exam content; pharmacology literature.

Question 2
What illness or diagnosis would localized egophony on auscultation over the left
lower lobe most likely imply?
A. Airway involvement (bronchi)
B. Asthma

pg. 1

,C. Bronchospasm (asthma, COPD)
D. Consolidation (pneumonia)
Answer: D
Rationale: Egophony is a finding on auscultation where the patient says "E" and
the examiner hears "A" due to consolidation of lung tissue. This is classic for
pneumonia. Asthma and COPD cause wheezing. Bronchial breath sounds indicate
consolidation but egophony is more specific.
Source: NR667 Exit Exam content; pulmonology literature.

Question 3
During an oral exam, the patient's tongue deviates to the left when protruded.
Which is the correct diagnosis?
A. Trigeminal nerve (CN V) lesion
B. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) lesion
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) lesion
D. Vagus nerve (CN X) paralysis
Answer: B
Rationale: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) controls tongue movement. When
there is a lesion on one side, the tongue deviates toward the side of the lesion due
to unopposed action of the intact side. A left-sided lesion causes the tongue to
deviate to the left. CN V controls jaw movement. CN IX controls gag reflex. CN X
controls swallowing and voice.
Source: NR667 Exit Exam content; neurology literature.

Question 4
A 30-year-old with cyclical extremes of euphoria and depression. Which diagnosis
is likely?
A. Panic disorder
B. Major depression
C. Schizophrenia
D. Bipolar disorder
Answer: D
Rationale: Cyclical extremes of euphoria (mania) and depression are the hallmark
of bipolar disorder. Panic disorder involves recurrent panic attacks. Major
depression involves persistent low mood without manic episodes. Schizophrenia
pg. 2

,involves psychosis.
Source: NR667 Exit Exam content; psychiatry literature.

Question 5
A 22-year-old who appears drowsy, opens eyes to respond, then drifts back to
sleep. Which level of consciousness is this?
A. Obtunded
B. Coma
C. Lethargic
D. Labile
Answer: A
Rationale: Obtunded is a decreased level of consciousness where the patient is
drowsy, opens eyes to stimulation, responds slowly, and drifts back to sleep.
Lethargic is less severe (patient is drowsy but easily aroused). Coma is
unresponsive. Labile refers to mood swings.
Source: NR667 Exit Exam content; neurology literature.

Question 6
Your schizophrenic patient says, "What is that awful smell?" This is an example of
which type of hallucination?
A. Optic
B. Auditory
C. Olfactory
D. Vagus
Answer: C
Rationale: Olfactory hallucinations involve the sense of smell. They can occur in
schizophrenia, temporal lobe epilepsy, and other conditions. Auditory
hallucinations are most common in schizophrenia. Optic hallucinations involve
vision.
Source: NR667 Exit Exam content; psychiatry literature.

Question 7
In educating a patient about GERD management, which factor is not typically an
aggravating cause?
A. Increased gastric emptying ("dumping")
pg. 3

, B. Recent gastric bypass surgery
C. Central obesity
D. Increase in intraocular pressure
Answer: D
Rationale: Increased intraocular pressure is not a known aggravating factor for
GERD. Central obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure and worsens GERD.
Gastric bypass surgery can affect GERD. Increased gastric emptying is not
typically an aggravating factor; delayed emptying is more associated with GERD.
Source: NR667 Exit Exam content; gastroenterology literature.

Question 8
Which is true of phase 1 of classic migraine management?
A. Patients in phase 1 migraine will benefit from calcium channel blockers
B. Patients in phase 1 migraine will benefit from triptan therapy (serotonin
agonism)
C. Patients in phase 1 migraine will benefit from NSAIDs only
D. Patients in phase 1 migraine will benefit from beta-blockers
Answer: B
Rationale: Phase 1 of a classic migraine is the prodrome/aura phase. Triptans
(serotonin agonists) are effective for acute migraine treatment when taken early.
NSAIDs may be used for mild migraines. Calcium channel blockers and beta-
blockers are used for prophylaxis.
Source: NR667 Exit Exam content; neurology literature.

Question 9
Based on ABCDE for melanoma, which represents a suspicious finding?
A. Diameter of 0.4 cm
B. Uniform color
C. Diameter of 0.8 cm
D. Symmetrical border
Answer: C
Rationale: The ABCDEs of melanoma include Diameter >6 mm (0.6 cm) as a
warning sign. A diameter of 0.8 cm (8 mm) exceeds this threshold and is
suspicious. Uniform color, symmetrical border, and small diameter are reassuring
features.
pg. 4