ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING EXAM 2026/2027 –
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A client who is planning a pregnancy asks which nutrient is most important to begin
taking before conception to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Which response should
the nurse provide?
A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin D
Rationale: Folic acid taken before conception and during early pregnancy helps reduce the risk
of fetal neural tube defects. Adequate calcium, iron, and vitamin D remain important during
pregnancy but do not provide the same specific preventive effect.
2. During a prenatal visit, a client asks about the purpose of human chorionic gonadotropin
(hCG) during early pregnancy. Which explanation is appropriate?
A. It stimulates fetal lung maturation.
B. It promotes uterine contractions.
C. It helps maintain the corpus luteum during early pregnancy.
D. It causes the cervix to dilate during labor.
Rationale: hCG is produced by trophoblastic tissue and supports the corpus luteum during early
pregnancy so progesterone production can continue. Lung maturation, cervical dilation, and
labor contractions involve other mechanisms.
3. A pregnant client reports urinary frequency during the first trimester. Which explanation
should the nurse give?
A. The fetus is compressing the bladder.
B. The kidneys stop concentrating urine during pregnancy.
C. Increased blood flow to the kidneys contributes to increased urine production.
D. The urethra becomes shortened during pregnancy.
Rationale: Renal blood flow and glomerular filtration increase during pregnancy, contributing
to increased urine formation and urinary frequency. Fetal bladder compression is more relevant
later in pregnancy.
4. Which finding is considered a positive indication of pregnancy?
,A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Fetal movement felt by the client
D. Fetal heart activity detected by ultrasound
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are findings that can be directly attributed to the fetus,
such as fetal heart activity detected by ultrasound. Amenorrhea, a positive pregnancy test, and
perceived fetal movement are presumptive or probable findings.
5. A nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks of gestation. Where should the nurse expect the
uterine fundus to be located?
A. At the symphysis pubis
B. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
C. At approximately the level of the umbilicus
D. At the xiphoid process
Rationale: At approximately 20 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus is normally at the level of
the umbilicus. The fundus progressively rises as pregnancy advances.
6. A client at 12 weeks of gestation asks why an ultrasound is being performed. Which
information should the nurse provide?
A. It confirms that the newborn has mature lungs.
B. It can help establish fetal viability and assess gestational development.
C. It determines the exact date labor will begin.
D. It confirms that the placenta will deliver normally.
Rationale: Ultrasound can assess fetal viability, development, location, and gestational
characteristics. It cannot predict the exact onset of labor or guarantee a normal placental
delivery.
7. A pregnant client asks why the nurse recommends avoiding alcohol during pregnancy.
Which fetal complication is associated with prenatal alcohol exposure?
A. Neural tube closure
B. Placental implantation
C. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders
D. Physiologic jaundice
Rationale: Prenatal alcohol exposure can cause fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, which may
involve growth abnormalities, neurodevelopmental impairment, and characteristic facial
features. Avoidance of alcohol is recommended throughout pregnancy.
8. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about iron supplementation. Which food is a good
source of dietary iron?
, A. White rice
B. Applesauce
C. Yogurt
D. Lean red meat
Rationale: Lean red meat provides heme iron, which is well absorbed. Other iron-containing
foods include legumes, fortified cereals, and leafy green vegetables.
9. A client at 30 weeks of gestation reports occasional painless uterine tightening that
resolves with rest and hydration. Which finding is most consistent with this report?
A. Braxton Hicks contractions
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Rationale: Braxton Hicks contractions are generally irregular and may decrease with rest,
hydration, or changes in activity. Regular painful contractions accompanied by cervical change
are more concerning for true labor.
10. A pregnant client reports severe persistent headache, blurred vision, and epigastric pain.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Encourage the client to rest at home.
B. Recommend increasing oral fluids.
C. Notify the health care provider promptly.
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are expected.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain can indicate severe
preeclampsia and require prompt evaluation. These symptoms should not be dismissed as
normal pregnancy discomforts.
11. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding requires
immediate nursing attention?
A. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Patellar reflexes 2+
D. Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity can cause respiratory depression, decreased deep tendon
reflexes, and reduced urine output. A respiratory rate of 10/min is concerning and requires
immediate intervention.
12. A nurse is caring for a client with placenta previa. Which assessment finding is most
characteristic of this condition?
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A client who is planning a pregnancy asks which nutrient is most important to begin
taking before conception to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Which response should
the nurse provide?
A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin D
Rationale: Folic acid taken before conception and during early pregnancy helps reduce the risk
of fetal neural tube defects. Adequate calcium, iron, and vitamin D remain important during
pregnancy but do not provide the same specific preventive effect.
2. During a prenatal visit, a client asks about the purpose of human chorionic gonadotropin
(hCG) during early pregnancy. Which explanation is appropriate?
A. It stimulates fetal lung maturation.
B. It promotes uterine contractions.
C. It helps maintain the corpus luteum during early pregnancy.
D. It causes the cervix to dilate during labor.
Rationale: hCG is produced by trophoblastic tissue and supports the corpus luteum during early
pregnancy so progesterone production can continue. Lung maturation, cervical dilation, and
labor contractions involve other mechanisms.
3. A pregnant client reports urinary frequency during the first trimester. Which explanation
should the nurse give?
A. The fetus is compressing the bladder.
B. The kidneys stop concentrating urine during pregnancy.
C. Increased blood flow to the kidneys contributes to increased urine production.
D. The urethra becomes shortened during pregnancy.
Rationale: Renal blood flow and glomerular filtration increase during pregnancy, contributing
to increased urine formation and urinary frequency. Fetal bladder compression is more relevant
later in pregnancy.
4. Which finding is considered a positive indication of pregnancy?
,A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Fetal movement felt by the client
D. Fetal heart activity detected by ultrasound
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are findings that can be directly attributed to the fetus,
such as fetal heart activity detected by ultrasound. Amenorrhea, a positive pregnancy test, and
perceived fetal movement are presumptive or probable findings.
5. A nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks of gestation. Where should the nurse expect the
uterine fundus to be located?
A. At the symphysis pubis
B. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
C. At approximately the level of the umbilicus
D. At the xiphoid process
Rationale: At approximately 20 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus is normally at the level of
the umbilicus. The fundus progressively rises as pregnancy advances.
6. A client at 12 weeks of gestation asks why an ultrasound is being performed. Which
information should the nurse provide?
A. It confirms that the newborn has mature lungs.
B. It can help establish fetal viability and assess gestational development.
C. It determines the exact date labor will begin.
D. It confirms that the placenta will deliver normally.
Rationale: Ultrasound can assess fetal viability, development, location, and gestational
characteristics. It cannot predict the exact onset of labor or guarantee a normal placental
delivery.
7. A pregnant client asks why the nurse recommends avoiding alcohol during pregnancy.
Which fetal complication is associated with prenatal alcohol exposure?
A. Neural tube closure
B. Placental implantation
C. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders
D. Physiologic jaundice
Rationale: Prenatal alcohol exposure can cause fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, which may
involve growth abnormalities, neurodevelopmental impairment, and characteristic facial
features. Avoidance of alcohol is recommended throughout pregnancy.
8. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about iron supplementation. Which food is a good
source of dietary iron?
, A. White rice
B. Applesauce
C. Yogurt
D. Lean red meat
Rationale: Lean red meat provides heme iron, which is well absorbed. Other iron-containing
foods include legumes, fortified cereals, and leafy green vegetables.
9. A client at 30 weeks of gestation reports occasional painless uterine tightening that
resolves with rest and hydration. Which finding is most consistent with this report?
A. Braxton Hicks contractions
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Rationale: Braxton Hicks contractions are generally irregular and may decrease with rest,
hydration, or changes in activity. Regular painful contractions accompanied by cervical change
are more concerning for true labor.
10. A pregnant client reports severe persistent headache, blurred vision, and epigastric pain.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Encourage the client to rest at home.
B. Recommend increasing oral fluids.
C. Notify the health care provider promptly.
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are expected.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain can indicate severe
preeclampsia and require prompt evaluation. These symptoms should not be dismissed as
normal pregnancy discomforts.
11. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding requires
immediate nursing attention?
A. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Patellar reflexes 2+
D. Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity can cause respiratory depression, decreased deep tendon
reflexes, and reduced urine output. A respiratory rate of 10/min is concerning and requires
immediate intervention.
12. A nurse is caring for a client with placenta previa. Which assessment finding is most
characteristic of this condition?
