COMPLETE TEST BANK:
For Little And Falace's Dental Management Of The Medically Compromised Patient 9th Edition By
Craig Miller Dmd, Ms (Author)
All Chapters | Complete Guide
,Little: Dental Management Of The Medically Compromised Patient, 10th Edition Test Bank
Table Of Contents
Part One: Patient Evaluation And Risk Assessment
Chapter 1: Patient Evaluation And Risk Assessment Part
Two: Cardiovascular Disease
Chapter 2: Infective Endocarditis Chapter
3: Hypertension
Chapter 4: Ischemic Heart Disease
Chapter 5: Cardiac Arrhythmias
Chapter 6: Heart Failure (Or Congestive Heart Failure)
Part Three: Pulmonary disease
chapter 7: pulmonary disease
chapter 8: smoking and tobacco use cessation chapter 9:
sleep-related breathing disorders part four:
gastrointestial disease
chapter 10: liver disease
chapter 11: gastrointestinal disease
part five: genitourinary disease
chapter 12: chronic kidney disease and dialysis chapter 13:
sexually transmitted diseases
part six: endocrine and metabolic disease
chapter 14: diabetes mellitus chapter 15:
adrenal insufficiency chapter 16:
thyroid diseases
chapter 17: pregnancy and breast feeding
part seven: immunologic disease
chapter 18: aids, hiv infection, and related conditions chapter 19: allergy
chapter 20: rheumatologic and connective tissue disorders chapter
21: organ and bone marrow transplantation
part eight: hematologic and oncologic disease
chapter 22: disorders of red blood cells chapter 23:
disorders of white blood cells
chapter 24: acquired bleeding and hypercoagulable disorders
chapter 25: congenital bleeding and hypercoagulable disorders
chapter 26: cancer and oral care of the patient
part nine: neurologic, behavioral, and psychiatric disorders
chapter 27: neurologic disorders
chapter 28: anxiety, eating disorders, and behavioral reactions to illness chapter 29:
psychiatric disorders
chapter 30: drug and alcohol abuse
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Page 1 of 74
chapter 01: patient evaluation and risk assessment
little: dental management of the medically compromised patient, 10th edition
multiple choice
1. elective dental care should be deferred for patients with severe, uncontrolled hypertension,
q q q q q q q q q q q q
meaning that the blood pressure is greater than or equal to
q q mm hg. q q q q q q q q q
a. 200/140
b. 180/140
c. 180/110
d. 160/110
ans: c q
elective dental care should be deferred for patients with severe, uncontrolled hypertension, which is
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
blood pressure greater than or equal to 180/110 mm hg, until the condition can be brought under control.
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
2. the american heart association currently recommends antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient
q q q q q q q q q q q
with which of the following cardiac conditions?
q q q q q q
a. mitral valve prolapse q q
b. prosthetic heart valve q q
c. rheumatic heart disease q q
d. pacemakers for cardiac arrhythmias q q q
ans: b q
previously, the american heart association (aha) recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for many
q q q q q q q q q q q
patients with heart murmurs caused by valvular disease (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, rheumatic heart
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
disease) in an effort to prevent infective endocarditis; however, current guidelines omit this
q q q q q q q q q q q q q
recommendation on the basis of accumulated scientific evidence. if a murmur is due to certain q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
specific cardiac conditions (e.g., previous endocarditis, prosthetic heart valve, complex congenital
q q q q q q q q q q q
cyanotic heart disease), the aha continues to recommend antibiotic prophylaxis for most dental
q q q q q q q q q q q q q
procedures.
3. one consequence of chronic hepatitis (b or c) or cirrhosis of the liver is decreased ability of
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
the body to
q certain drugs, including local anesthetics and analgesics.
q q q q q q q
a. absorb
b. distribute
c. metabolize
d. excrete
ans: c q
patients also may have chronic hepatitis (b or c) or cirrhosis, with impairment of liver function. this
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
deficit may result in prolonged bleeding and less efficient metabolism of certain drugs, including
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
local anesthetics and analgesics.
q q q
4. which of the following symptoms and signs is most consistent with allergy?
q q q q q q q q q q q
a. heart palpitations q
b. itching
c. vomiting
d. fainting
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ans: b q
symptoms and signs consistent with allergy include itching, urticaria (hives), rash, swelling,
q q q q q q q q q q q q
wheezing, angioedema, runny nose, and tearing eyes. isolated signs and symptoms such as nausea,
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
vomiting, heart palpitations, and fainting generally are not of an allergic origin but rather are
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
manifestations of drug intolerance, adverse side effects, or psychogenic reactions. q q q q q q q q q
5. which of the following is true of the patient with a history of tuberculosis?
q q q q q q q q q q q q q
a. a positive result on skin testing means that the person has active tb.
q q q q q q q q q q q q
b. most patients who become positive skin testers develop active disease.
q q q q q q q q q
c. patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids) have a high incidence
q q q q q q q q q q
of tuberculosis. q
d. a diagnosis of active tb is made by a purified protein derivative (ppd) skin test.
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
ans: q c
the potential coexistence of tuberculosis and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids) should
q q q q q q q q q q q
be explored because patients with aids have a high incidence of tuberculosis. a positive result on
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
skin testing means specifically that the person has at some time been infected with tb, not
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
necessarily that active disease is present. most patients who become positive skin testers do not
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
develop active disease. a diagnosis of active tb is made by chest x-ray, imaging, sputum culture, and
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
clinical examination. q
6. vasoconstrictors should be avoided in patients who cocaine or methamphetamine users q q q q q q q q q q q
because these agents may precipitate q . q q q
a. severe hypotension q
b. severe hypertension q
c. respiratory depression q
d. cessation of intestinal peristalsis q q q
ans: b q
vasoconstrictors should be avoided in patients who are cocaine or methamphetamine users q q q q q q q q q q q q
because the combination may precipitate arrhythmias, mi, or severe hypertension.
q q q q q q q q q
7. it has been shown that the risk for occurrence of a serious perioperative cardiovascular event (e.g., mi,
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
heart failure) is increased in patients who are unable to meet a -met (metabolic equivalent of task)
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
demand during normal daily activity. q q q q
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
ans: a q
daily activities requiring 4 mets include level walking at 4 miles/hour or climbing a flight of stairs.
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
activities requiring greater than 10 mets include swimming and singles tennis. an exercise capacity of
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
10 to 13 mets indicates excellent physical conditioning.
q q q q q q q
8. which of the following alterations in the fingernails is associated with cirrhosis?
q q q q q q q q q q q
a. yellowing
b. clubbing
c. white discoloration q
d. splinter hemorrhages q
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For Little And Falace's Dental Management Of The Medically Compromised Patient 9th Edition By
Craig Miller Dmd, Ms (Author)
All Chapters | Complete Guide
,Little: Dental Management Of The Medically Compromised Patient, 10th Edition Test Bank
Table Of Contents
Part One: Patient Evaluation And Risk Assessment
Chapter 1: Patient Evaluation And Risk Assessment Part
Two: Cardiovascular Disease
Chapter 2: Infective Endocarditis Chapter
3: Hypertension
Chapter 4: Ischemic Heart Disease
Chapter 5: Cardiac Arrhythmias
Chapter 6: Heart Failure (Or Congestive Heart Failure)
Part Three: Pulmonary disease
chapter 7: pulmonary disease
chapter 8: smoking and tobacco use cessation chapter 9:
sleep-related breathing disorders part four:
gastrointestial disease
chapter 10: liver disease
chapter 11: gastrointestinal disease
part five: genitourinary disease
chapter 12: chronic kidney disease and dialysis chapter 13:
sexually transmitted diseases
part six: endocrine and metabolic disease
chapter 14: diabetes mellitus chapter 15:
adrenal insufficiency chapter 16:
thyroid diseases
chapter 17: pregnancy and breast feeding
part seven: immunologic disease
chapter 18: aids, hiv infection, and related conditions chapter 19: allergy
chapter 20: rheumatologic and connective tissue disorders chapter
21: organ and bone marrow transplantation
part eight: hematologic and oncologic disease
chapter 22: disorders of red blood cells chapter 23:
disorders of white blood cells
chapter 24: acquired bleeding and hypercoagulable disorders
chapter 25: congenital bleeding and hypercoagulable disorders
chapter 26: cancer and oral care of the patient
part nine: neurologic, behavioral, and psychiatric disorders
chapter 27: neurologic disorders
chapter 28: anxiety, eating disorders, and behavioral reactions to illness chapter 29:
psychiatric disorders
chapter 30: drug and alcohol abuse
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Marketplace and and
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Page 1 of 74
chapter 01: patient evaluation and risk assessment
little: dental management of the medically compromised patient, 10th edition
multiple choice
1. elective dental care should be deferred for patients with severe, uncontrolled hypertension,
q q q q q q q q q q q q
meaning that the blood pressure is greater than or equal to
q q mm hg. q q q q q q q q q
a. 200/140
b. 180/140
c. 180/110
d. 160/110
ans: c q
elective dental care should be deferred for patients with severe, uncontrolled hypertension, which is
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
blood pressure greater than or equal to 180/110 mm hg, until the condition can be brought under control.
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
2. the american heart association currently recommends antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient
q q q q q q q q q q q
with which of the following cardiac conditions?
q q q q q q
a. mitral valve prolapse q q
b. prosthetic heart valve q q
c. rheumatic heart disease q q
d. pacemakers for cardiac arrhythmias q q q
ans: b q
previously, the american heart association (aha) recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for many
q q q q q q q q q q q
patients with heart murmurs caused by valvular disease (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, rheumatic heart
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
disease) in an effort to prevent infective endocarditis; however, current guidelines omit this
q q q q q q q q q q q q q
recommendation on the basis of accumulated scientific evidence. if a murmur is due to certain q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
specific cardiac conditions (e.g., previous endocarditis, prosthetic heart valve, complex congenital
q q q q q q q q q q q
cyanotic heart disease), the aha continues to recommend antibiotic prophylaxis for most dental
q q q q q q q q q q q q q
procedures.
3. one consequence of chronic hepatitis (b or c) or cirrhosis of the liver is decreased ability of
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
the body to
q certain drugs, including local anesthetics and analgesics.
q q q q q q q
a. absorb
b. distribute
c. metabolize
d. excrete
ans: c q
patients also may have chronic hepatitis (b or c) or cirrhosis, with impairment of liver function. this
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
deficit may result in prolonged bleeding and less efficient metabolism of certain drugs, including
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
local anesthetics and analgesics.
q q q
4. which of the following symptoms and signs is most consistent with allergy?
q q q q q q q q q q q
a. heart palpitations q
b. itching
c. vomiting
d. fainting
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ans: b q
symptoms and signs consistent with allergy include itching, urticaria (hives), rash, swelling,
q q q q q q q q q q q q
wheezing, angioedema, runny nose, and tearing eyes. isolated signs and symptoms such as nausea,
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
vomiting, heart palpitations, and fainting generally are not of an allergic origin but rather are
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
manifestations of drug intolerance, adverse side effects, or psychogenic reactions. q q q q q q q q q
5. which of the following is true of the patient with a history of tuberculosis?
q q q q q q q q q q q q q
a. a positive result on skin testing means that the person has active tb.
q q q q q q q q q q q q
b. most patients who become positive skin testers develop active disease.
q q q q q q q q q
c. patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids) have a high incidence
q q q q q q q q q q
of tuberculosis. q
d. a diagnosis of active tb is made by a purified protein derivative (ppd) skin test.
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
ans: q c
the potential coexistence of tuberculosis and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids) should
q q q q q q q q q q q
be explored because patients with aids have a high incidence of tuberculosis. a positive result on
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
skin testing means specifically that the person has at some time been infected with tb, not
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
necessarily that active disease is present. most patients who become positive skin testers do not
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
develop active disease. a diagnosis of active tb is made by chest x-ray, imaging, sputum culture, and
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
clinical examination. q
6. vasoconstrictors should be avoided in patients who cocaine or methamphetamine users q q q q q q q q q q q
because these agents may precipitate q . q q q
a. severe hypotension q
b. severe hypertension q
c. respiratory depression q
d. cessation of intestinal peristalsis q q q
ans: b q
vasoconstrictors should be avoided in patients who are cocaine or methamphetamine users q q q q q q q q q q q q
because the combination may precipitate arrhythmias, mi, or severe hypertension.
q q q q q q q q q
7. it has been shown that the risk for occurrence of a serious perioperative cardiovascular event (e.g., mi,
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
heart failure) is increased in patients who are unable to meet a -met (metabolic equivalent of task)
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
demand during normal daily activity. q q q q
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
ans: a q
daily activities requiring 4 mets include level walking at 4 miles/hour or climbing a flight of stairs.
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
activities requiring greater than 10 mets include swimming and singles tennis. an exercise capacity of
q q q q q q q q q q q q q q q
10 to 13 mets indicates excellent physical conditioning.
q q q q q q q
8. which of the following alterations in the fingernails is associated with cirrhosis?
q q q q q q q q q q q
a. yellowing
b. clubbing
c. white discoloration q
d. splinter hemorrhages q
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