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Nclex Pn Test Practicequestions With Verified Solutions
2023
The client is admitted from the emergency room with multiple injuries
sustained from an auto accident. His doctor prescribes a histamine
blocker. The reason for this order is:
A. To treat general discomfort
B. To correct electrolyte
imbalances C. To prevent stress
ulcers
D. To treat nausea
Answer C: Histamine blockers are frequently ordered for clients who are
hospitalized for prolonged periods and who are in a stressful situation.
They are not used to treat discomfort, correct electrolytes, or treat nausea;
therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
The client with a recent liver transplant asks the nurse how long he
will have to take cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which response is correct?
A. 1 year
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. The rest of his life
Answer D: Cyclosporin is an immunosuppressant, and the client with a
liver transplant will be on immunosuppressants for the rest of his life.
Answers A, B, and C, therefore, are incorrect.
Shortly after the client was admitted to the postpartum unit, the
nurse notes heavy lochia rubra with large clots. The nurse should
anticipate an order for:
A. Methergine
B. Stadol
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Phenergan
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Answer A: Methergine is a drug that causes uterine contractions. It is used
for postpartal bleeding that is not controlled by Pitocin. Answers B, C, and D
are incorrect: Stadol is an analgesic; magnesium sulfate is used for
preeclampsia; and phenergan is an antiemetic.
The client is scheduled to have an intravenous cholangiogram.
Before the procedure, the nurse should assess the patient for:
A. Shellfish allergies
B. Reactions to blood transfusions
C. Gallbladder disease
D. Egg allergies
Answer A: Clients having dye procedures should be assessed for allergies
to iodine or shellfish. Answers B and D are incorrect because there is no
need for the client to be assessed for reactions to blood or eggs. Because an
IV cholangiogram is done to detect gallbladder disease, there is no need to
ask about answer C.
A new diabetic is learning to administer his insulin. He receives 10U
of NPH and 12U of regular insulin each morning. Which of the following
statements reflects understanding of the nurse’s teaching?
A. “When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the regular insulin first.”
B. “When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the NPH insulin first.”
C. “It doesn’t matter which insulin I draw up first.”
D. “I cannot mix the insulin, so I will need two shots.”
Answer A: Regular insulin should be drawn up before the NPH. They can be
given together, so there is no need for two injections, making answer D
incorrect. Answer B is obviously incorrect, and answer C is incorrect
because it does matter which is drawn first: Contamination of NPH into
regular insulin will result in a hypoglycemic reaction at unexpected times.
A client with osteomylitis has an order for a trough level to be
done because he is taking Gentamycin. When should the nurse call the
lab to obtain the trough level?
A. Before the first dose
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B. 30 minutes before the fourth dose
C. 30 minutes after the first dose
D. 30 minutes after the fourth dose
Answer B: Trough levels are the lowest blood levels and should be done 30
minutes before the third IV dose or 30 minutes before the fourth IM dose.
Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
A 4-year-old with cystic fibrosis has a prescription for Viokase
pancreatic enzymes to prevent malabsorption. The correct time to
give pancreatic enzyme is:
A. 1 hour before meals
B. 2 hours after meals
C. With each meal and snack
D. On an empty stomach
Answer C: Viokase is a pancreatic enzyme that is used to facilitate
digestion. It should be given with meals and snacks, and it works well in
foods such as applesauce. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect times to
administer this medication.
Isoniazid (INH) has been prescribed for a family member exposed to
tuberculosis. The nurse is aware that the length of time that the
medication will be taken is:
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
Answer A: The expected time for contact to tuberculosis is 1 year.
Therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
The client is admitted to the postpartum unit with an order to continue
the infusion of Pitocin. Which finding indicates that the Pitocin is having
the desired effect?
A. The fundus is deviated to the left.
B. The fundus is firm and in the midline.
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C. The fundus is boggy.
D. The fundus is two finger breadths below the umbilicus.
Answer B: Pitocin is used to cause the uterus to contract and decrease
bleeding. A uterus deviated to the left, as stated in answer A, indicates a full
bladder. It is not desirable to have a boggy uterus, making answer C
incorrect. This lack of muscle tone will increase bleeding. Answer D is
incorrect because the position of the uterus is not related to the use of
Pitocin.
The nurse is teaching a group of new graduates about the safety needs
of the client receiving chemotherapy. Before administering chemotherapy,
the nurse should:
A. Administer a bolus of IV fluid
B. Administer pain
medication C. Administer an
antiemetic
D. Allow the patient a chance to eat
Answer C: Before chemotherapy, an antiemetic should be given because
most chemotherapy agents cause nausea. It is not necessary to give a bolus
of IV fluids, medicate for pain, or allow the client to eat; therefore, answers A,
B, and D are incorrect.
Before administering Methytrexate orally to the client with cancer,
the nurse should check the:
A. IV site
B. Electrolytes
C. Blood gases
D. Vital signs
Answer D: The vital signs should be taken before any chemotherapy
agent. If it is an IV infusion of chemotherapy, the nurse should check the IV
site as well. Answers B and C are incorrect because it is not necessary to
check the electrolytes or blood gases.
Vitamin K (aquamephyton) is administered to a newborn shortly
after birth for which of the following reasons?
A. To prevent dehydration
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Nclex Pn Test Practicequestions With Verified Solutions
2023
The client is admitted from the emergency room with multiple injuries
sustained from an auto accident. His doctor prescribes a histamine
blocker. The reason for this order is:
A. To treat general discomfort
B. To correct electrolyte
imbalances C. To prevent stress
ulcers
D. To treat nausea
Answer C: Histamine blockers are frequently ordered for clients who are
hospitalized for prolonged periods and who are in a stressful situation.
They are not used to treat discomfort, correct electrolytes, or treat nausea;
therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
The client with a recent liver transplant asks the nurse how long he
will have to take cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which response is correct?
A. 1 year
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. The rest of his life
Answer D: Cyclosporin is an immunosuppressant, and the client with a
liver transplant will be on immunosuppressants for the rest of his life.
Answers A, B, and C, therefore, are incorrect.
Shortly after the client was admitted to the postpartum unit, the
nurse notes heavy lochia rubra with large clots. The nurse should
anticipate an order for:
A. Methergine
B. Stadol
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Phenergan
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Answer A: Methergine is a drug that causes uterine contractions. It is used
for postpartal bleeding that is not controlled by Pitocin. Answers B, C, and D
are incorrect: Stadol is an analgesic; magnesium sulfate is used for
preeclampsia; and phenergan is an antiemetic.
The client is scheduled to have an intravenous cholangiogram.
Before the procedure, the nurse should assess the patient for:
A. Shellfish allergies
B. Reactions to blood transfusions
C. Gallbladder disease
D. Egg allergies
Answer A: Clients having dye procedures should be assessed for allergies
to iodine or shellfish. Answers B and D are incorrect because there is no
need for the client to be assessed for reactions to blood or eggs. Because an
IV cholangiogram is done to detect gallbladder disease, there is no need to
ask about answer C.
A new diabetic is learning to administer his insulin. He receives 10U
of NPH and 12U of regular insulin each morning. Which of the following
statements reflects understanding of the nurse’s teaching?
A. “When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the regular insulin first.”
B. “When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the NPH insulin first.”
C. “It doesn’t matter which insulin I draw up first.”
D. “I cannot mix the insulin, so I will need two shots.”
Answer A: Regular insulin should be drawn up before the NPH. They can be
given together, so there is no need for two injections, making answer D
incorrect. Answer B is obviously incorrect, and answer C is incorrect
because it does matter which is drawn first: Contamination of NPH into
regular insulin will result in a hypoglycemic reaction at unexpected times.
A client with osteomylitis has an order for a trough level to be
done because he is taking Gentamycin. When should the nurse call the
lab to obtain the trough level?
A. Before the first dose
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B. 30 minutes before the fourth dose
C. 30 minutes after the first dose
D. 30 minutes after the fourth dose
Answer B: Trough levels are the lowest blood levels and should be done 30
minutes before the third IV dose or 30 minutes before the fourth IM dose.
Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
A 4-year-old with cystic fibrosis has a prescription for Viokase
pancreatic enzymes to prevent malabsorption. The correct time to
give pancreatic enzyme is:
A. 1 hour before meals
B. 2 hours after meals
C. With each meal and snack
D. On an empty stomach
Answer C: Viokase is a pancreatic enzyme that is used to facilitate
digestion. It should be given with meals and snacks, and it works well in
foods such as applesauce. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect times to
administer this medication.
Isoniazid (INH) has been prescribed for a family member exposed to
tuberculosis. The nurse is aware that the length of time that the
medication will be taken is:
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
Answer A: The expected time for contact to tuberculosis is 1 year.
Therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
The client is admitted to the postpartum unit with an order to continue
the infusion of Pitocin. Which finding indicates that the Pitocin is having
the desired effect?
A. The fundus is deviated to the left.
B. The fundus is firm and in the midline.
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C. The fundus is boggy.
D. The fundus is two finger breadths below the umbilicus.
Answer B: Pitocin is used to cause the uterus to contract and decrease
bleeding. A uterus deviated to the left, as stated in answer A, indicates a full
bladder. It is not desirable to have a boggy uterus, making answer C
incorrect. This lack of muscle tone will increase bleeding. Answer D is
incorrect because the position of the uterus is not related to the use of
Pitocin.
The nurse is teaching a group of new graduates about the safety needs
of the client receiving chemotherapy. Before administering chemotherapy,
the nurse should:
A. Administer a bolus of IV fluid
B. Administer pain
medication C. Administer an
antiemetic
D. Allow the patient a chance to eat
Answer C: Before chemotherapy, an antiemetic should be given because
most chemotherapy agents cause nausea. It is not necessary to give a bolus
of IV fluids, medicate for pain, or allow the client to eat; therefore, answers A,
B, and D are incorrect.
Before administering Methytrexate orally to the client with cancer,
the nurse should check the:
A. IV site
B. Electrolytes
C. Blood gases
D. Vital signs
Answer D: The vital signs should be taken before any chemotherapy
agent. If it is an IV infusion of chemotherapy, the nurse should check the IV
site as well. Answers B and C are incorrect because it is not necessary to
check the electrolytes or blood gases.
Vitamin K (aquamephyton) is administered to a newborn shortly
after birth for which of the following reasons?
A. To prevent dehydration
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