Page 1 of 91
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM COMPREHENSIVE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST EDITION 2026
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam —Questions with Rationales
Summarized 10-Point Exam Coverage
Based on the ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor blueprint aligned with the NCLEX-PN Test Plan:
1. Management of Care — prioritization, delegation, assignment, ethics, legal, and client
rights.
2. Safety & Infection Control — precautions, restraints, injury prevention, and error
prevention.
3. Health Promotion & Maintenance — developmental stages, disease prevention,
maternal-newborn, and pediatric wellness.
4. Psychosocial Integrity — mental health, therapeutic communication, grief, and crisis
intervention.
5. Basic Care & Comfort — mobility, elimination, nutrition, hygiene, and rest.
6. Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies — medication administration, dosage
calculation, IV therapy, and adverse effects.
7. Reduction of Risk Potential — laboratory values, diagnostic tests, monitoring, and
potential complications.
8. Physiological Adaptation — medical-surgical conditions, fluid/electrolyte imbalances,
and emergency management.
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,Page 2 of 91
NGN Question Types Included: Multiple Choice, Select-All-That-Apply, Bowtie, Matrix, Case
Study, Ordered Response, Highlight, Drag-and-Drop.
Exam Format: 180 items with a 3-hour time limit.
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE (Questions 1–50)
Q1. A PN is caring for four clients at the start of the shift. Which client should be assessed
FIRST?
A. Client with diabetes requesting pain medication for neuropathy
B. Client with COPD who has a new cough producing green sputum
C. Client post-op day 1 with new-onset confusion and BP 88/50
D. Client with a fractured tibia requesting help to the bathroom
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: New-onset confusion accompanied by hypotension suggests possible sepsis,
hemorrhage, or shock—an unstable priority. Airway and circulation precede stable complaints.
The other clients have stable conditions that can be addressed after the unstable client is
assessed.
Q2. A charge nurse is assigning staff for the shift. Which client should be assigned to an RN
rather than a PN?
A. Client with stable CHF receiving daily Lasix
B. Client requiring a blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia
C. Client with a new diagnosis of diabetes needing insulin instruction
D. Client with a PEG tube requiring intermittent feedings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Blood transfusions require complex assessment and monitoring that is typically
within the RN scope. The PN can administer stable medications, reinforce teaching, and perform
routine monitoring.
Q3. A PN is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is appropriate to
delegate?
A. Assessing a client's capillary refill
B. Teaching a client how to keep a cast dry
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C. Assisting a client with ambulation to the bathroom
D. Evaluating a client's pain level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assisting with ambulation is a standard, stable task that falls within the scope of AP
practice. The PN cannot delegate assessment, evaluation, or teaching as these require
professional nursing judgment.
Q4. A client is placed on airborne precautions for active tuberculosis. Which action is
required?
A. Place the client in a room with positive pressure
B. Wear a surgical mask when entering the room
C. Place the client in a negative pressure room
D. Keep the door open for ventilation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: TB is an airborne pathogen spread via droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the
air. Airborne precautions require a negative pressure room and the use of an N95 respirator by
healthcare providers.
Q5. A client with dementia has a physician's order for bilateral soft wrist restraints. Which
action is required?
A. Secure the restraint ties to the side rails
B. Apply the restraint snugly against the skin
C. Obtain a written prescription for the restraint application
D. Observe the client every 60 minutes after application
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints require a physician's written order, specifying the duration and reason. Ties
must never be secured to the side rails because they can cause injury if the rails are lowered.
The restraint should allow for two fingers of width to prevent circulation impairment.
Observations must be made every 15 to 30 minutes, not hourly.
Q6. A client refuses a scheduled enema. Which action by the PN demonstrates respect for
client autonomy?
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A. Explain the risks of not completing the procedure
B. Document the refusal and notify the RN
C. Ask the family to encourage the client
D. Reschedule the enema for later in the shift
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse treatment. The PN must document refusal
and report to RN.
Q7. The PN observes a UAP measuring a client's blood pressure using a cuff that is too small.
What should the PN do first?
A. Report the UAP to the nurse manager
B. Instruct the UAP to use the correct cuff size immediately
C. Document the incident in the UAP's file
D. Take over the task without comment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immediate correction prevents harm. Teaching is within PN scope.
Q8. Which client can the PN assign to a UAP?
A. Client 1 hour post-cardiac catheterization requiring bed rest
B. Client with new-onset confusion needing frequent reorientation
C. Client requiring a clean-catch urine specimen
D. Client with a chest tube reporting increased bubbling
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clean-catch urine specimen is a standard, unchanging task appropriate for UAP. Post-
procedure monitoring, confusion, and chest tube assessment require licensed nursing
judgment.
Q9. A client signs a living will. What is the PN's best action?
A. Place a copy in the client's chart and notify the RN
B. Ask the client to review it with the hospital ethics committee
C. Ensure the family signs as witnesses
D. Keep the original in the PN's possession until discharge
4|Page
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM COMPREHENSIVE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST EDITION 2026
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam —Questions with Rationales
Summarized 10-Point Exam Coverage
Based on the ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor blueprint aligned with the NCLEX-PN Test Plan:
1. Management of Care — prioritization, delegation, assignment, ethics, legal, and client
rights.
2. Safety & Infection Control — precautions, restraints, injury prevention, and error
prevention.
3. Health Promotion & Maintenance — developmental stages, disease prevention,
maternal-newborn, and pediatric wellness.
4. Psychosocial Integrity — mental health, therapeutic communication, grief, and crisis
intervention.
5. Basic Care & Comfort — mobility, elimination, nutrition, hygiene, and rest.
6. Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies — medication administration, dosage
calculation, IV therapy, and adverse effects.
7. Reduction of Risk Potential — laboratory values, diagnostic tests, monitoring, and
potential complications.
8. Physiological Adaptation — medical-surgical conditions, fluid/electrolyte imbalances,
and emergency management.
1|Page
,Page 2 of 91
NGN Question Types Included: Multiple Choice, Select-All-That-Apply, Bowtie, Matrix, Case
Study, Ordered Response, Highlight, Drag-and-Drop.
Exam Format: 180 items with a 3-hour time limit.
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE (Questions 1–50)
Q1. A PN is caring for four clients at the start of the shift. Which client should be assessed
FIRST?
A. Client with diabetes requesting pain medication for neuropathy
B. Client with COPD who has a new cough producing green sputum
C. Client post-op day 1 with new-onset confusion and BP 88/50
D. Client with a fractured tibia requesting help to the bathroom
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: New-onset confusion accompanied by hypotension suggests possible sepsis,
hemorrhage, or shock—an unstable priority. Airway and circulation precede stable complaints.
The other clients have stable conditions that can be addressed after the unstable client is
assessed.
Q2. A charge nurse is assigning staff for the shift. Which client should be assigned to an RN
rather than a PN?
A. Client with stable CHF receiving daily Lasix
B. Client requiring a blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia
C. Client with a new diagnosis of diabetes needing insulin instruction
D. Client with a PEG tube requiring intermittent feedings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Blood transfusions require complex assessment and monitoring that is typically
within the RN scope. The PN can administer stable medications, reinforce teaching, and perform
routine monitoring.
Q3. A PN is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is appropriate to
delegate?
A. Assessing a client's capillary refill
B. Teaching a client how to keep a cast dry
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,Page 3 of 91
C. Assisting a client with ambulation to the bathroom
D. Evaluating a client's pain level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assisting with ambulation is a standard, stable task that falls within the scope of AP
practice. The PN cannot delegate assessment, evaluation, or teaching as these require
professional nursing judgment.
Q4. A client is placed on airborne precautions for active tuberculosis. Which action is
required?
A. Place the client in a room with positive pressure
B. Wear a surgical mask when entering the room
C. Place the client in a negative pressure room
D. Keep the door open for ventilation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: TB is an airborne pathogen spread via droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the
air. Airborne precautions require a negative pressure room and the use of an N95 respirator by
healthcare providers.
Q5. A client with dementia has a physician's order for bilateral soft wrist restraints. Which
action is required?
A. Secure the restraint ties to the side rails
B. Apply the restraint snugly against the skin
C. Obtain a written prescription for the restraint application
D. Observe the client every 60 minutes after application
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints require a physician's written order, specifying the duration and reason. Ties
must never be secured to the side rails because they can cause injury if the rails are lowered.
The restraint should allow for two fingers of width to prevent circulation impairment.
Observations must be made every 15 to 30 minutes, not hourly.
Q6. A client refuses a scheduled enema. Which action by the PN demonstrates respect for
client autonomy?
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, Page 4 of 91
A. Explain the risks of not completing the procedure
B. Document the refusal and notify the RN
C. Ask the family to encourage the client
D. Reschedule the enema for later in the shift
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse treatment. The PN must document refusal
and report to RN.
Q7. The PN observes a UAP measuring a client's blood pressure using a cuff that is too small.
What should the PN do first?
A. Report the UAP to the nurse manager
B. Instruct the UAP to use the correct cuff size immediately
C. Document the incident in the UAP's file
D. Take over the task without comment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immediate correction prevents harm. Teaching is within PN scope.
Q8. Which client can the PN assign to a UAP?
A. Client 1 hour post-cardiac catheterization requiring bed rest
B. Client with new-onset confusion needing frequent reorientation
C. Client requiring a clean-catch urine specimen
D. Client with a chest tube reporting increased bubbling
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clean-catch urine specimen is a standard, unchanging task appropriate for UAP. Post-
procedure monitoring, confusion, and chest tube assessment require licensed nursing
judgment.
Q9. A client signs a living will. What is the PN's best action?
A. Place a copy in the client's chart and notify the RN
B. Ask the client to review it with the hospital ethics committee
C. Ensure the family signs as witnesses
D. Keep the original in the PN's possession until discharge
4|Page
