PHARMACOLOGY 09/18/2026
EXAM
WGU D116 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL
EXAM 2 OBJECTIVE ASSEMENT & PRE-ASSESMENT
700 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE
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A client is receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 40 mg IV daily. The nurse anticipates an increase in which
laboratory value as the result of this medication?
A) Serum glucose.
B) Serum calcium.
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EXAM
C) Red blood cells.
D) Serum potassium. –
Correct Answer :A.
Solu-Medrol is a corticosteroid with glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid actions. These effects can lead to
hyperglycemia (A), which is reflected as an increase in the serum glucose value. The client taking Solu-Medrol is
at risk for hypocalcemia (B) and hypokalemia (D), which result in a decrease, not an increase, in the serum
calcium and serum potassium levels. This medication does not adversely affect the RBC count (C).
The healthcare provider prescribes naloxone (Narcan) for a client in the emergency room. Which assessment
data would indicate that the naloxone has been effective? The client's
A) statement that the chest pain is better.
B) respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute.
C) seizure activity has stopped temporarily.
D) pupils are constricted bilaterally. –
Correct Answer :B.
Naloxone (Narcan) is a narcotic antagonist that reverses the respiratory depression effects of opiate overdose,
so assessment of a normal respiratory rate (B) would indicate that the respiratory depression has been halted.
(A, C, and D) are not related to naloxone (Narcan) administration.
A client is taking hydromorphone (Dilaudid) PO q4h at home. Following surgery, Dilaudid IV q4h PRN and
butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) IV q4h PRN are prescribed for pain. The client received a dose of the Dilaudid IV
four hours ago, and is again requesting pain medication. What intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Alternate the two medications q4h PRN for pain.
B) Alternate the two medications q2h PRN for pain.
C) Administer only the Dilaudid q4h PRN for pain.
D) Administer only the Stadol q4h PRN for pain. –
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Correct Answer :C.
Dilaudid is an opioid agonist. Stadol is an opioid agonist-antagonist. Use of an agonist-antagonist for the client
who has been receiving opioid agonists may result in abrupt withdrawal symptoms, and should be avoided (C).
(A, B, and D) do not reflect good nursing practice.
A 43-year-old female client is receiving thyroid replacement hormone following a thyroidectomy. What adverse
effects associated with thyroid hormone toxicity should the nurse instruct the client to report promptly to the
healthcare provider?
A) Tinnitus and dizziness.
B) Tachycardia and chest pain.
C) Dry skin and intolerance to cold.
D) Weight gain and increased appetite. –
Correct Answer :B. Thyroid replacement hormone increases the metabolic rate of all tissues, so common signs
and symptoms of toxicity include tachycardia and chest pain (B). (A, C, and D) do not indicate a thyroid hormone
toxicity.
Which drug is used as a palliative treatment for a client with tumor-induced spinal cord compression?
A) Morphine Sulfate (Duromorph).
B) Ibuprofen (Advil).
C) Amitriptyline (Amitril).
D) Dexamethasone (Decadron). –
Correct Answer :D.
Dexamethasone (D) is a palliative treatment modality to manage symptoms related to compression due to
tumor growth. Morphine sulphate (A) is an opioid analgesic used in oncology to manage severe or intractable
pain. Ibuprofen (B), a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID), provides relief for mild to moderate pain,
suppression of inflammation, and reduction of fever. Amitriptyline (C), a tricyclic antidepressant, is often
prescribed for pain related to neuropathic origin and provides a reduction in opioid dosage.
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A client is receiving metoprolol (Lopressor SR). What assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
A) Temperature.
B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. –
Correct Answer :C.
It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this medication because Lopressor is an
antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent. While (A and B) are important data to obtain on any client,
they are not as important for a client receiving Lopressor as (C). Intake and output ratios and daily weights
should be monitored while taking Lopressor to assess for signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure, but
(D) alone does not have the importance of (C).
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for symptom management.
The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement prior to
administering the first dose?
A) Review the client's hemoglobin results.
B) Notify the healthcare provider.
C) Inquire about the reaction to sulfa.
D) Record the client's vital signs. –
Correct Answer :B.
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic reaction in individuals who are sensitive to
sulfonamides, so the healthcare provider should be notified of the client's allergies (B). Although (A, C, and D)
are important assessments, it is most important to notify the healthcare provider for an alternate prescription.
Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status asthmaticus is prescribed this series
of medications. In which order should the nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to
last.)
A) Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.
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