ATI RN Pharmacology 2026 Proctored
Exam with NGN 70 Questions and 100%
Correct Answers to Score 98% and Above
in the New 2026 RN ATI Pharmacology
Proctored Assessment, Updated Exam
Preparation and Comprehensive
Pharmacology Review.
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin. Which finding should the nurse
report before giving the dose?
A. Heart rate 88 bpm
B. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
D. Digoxin level 0.8 ng/mL
Answer: B
Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Normal potassium is
roughly 3.5–5.0 mEq/L, so 3.1 is low and should be reported. A HR of 88 is
acceptable (hold if <60 in adults). BP is normal. Therapeutic digoxin range is about
0.5–2.0 ng/mL, so 0.8 is fine.
2. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
,Answer: B
Warfarin is monitored with PT/INR. Heparin is monitored with aPTT. Platelets
and bleeding time are not the standard monitoring parameters for warfarin.
3. Which medication should be withheld if the client's heart rate is 52 bpm?
A. Metoprolol
B. Amlodipine
C. Furosemide
D. Lisinopril
Answer: A
Beta-blockers like metoprolol lower heart rate and are typically held if HR is
below 60 bpm. Amlodipine, furosemide, and lisinopril do not require holding for
bradycardia.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about levothyroxine. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I will take it at bedtime with milk."
B. "I will take it in the morning on an empty stomach."
C. "I will take it with my calcium supplement."
D. "I will stop it when I feel better."
Answer: B
Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach, 30–60
minutes before breakfast. Calcium and dairy interfere with absorption. It is a
lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism.
5. Which adverse effect is most concerning with gentamicin?
A. Constipation
B. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperglycemia
,Answer: B
Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are known for ototoxicity and
nephrotoxicity. Monitoring of renal function and hearing is essential.
6. A client on furosemide should be monitored for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B
Loop diuretics like furosemide cause potassium loss. Monitor potassium and
watch for signs of hypokalemia (cramps, weakness, dysrhythmias).
7. Which medication is a first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine
C. Prednisone
D. Albuterol
Answer: B
IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Antihistamines and
steroids are adjuncts, not first-line.
8. A nurse is reviewing spironolactone. Which finding requires intervention?
A. Potassium 5.6 mEq/L
B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
C. BP 128/80 mm Hg
D. Urine output 50 mL/hr
Answer: A
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. A potassium of 5.6 is elevated
, and could cause dysrhythmias; the medication should be held and the provider
notified.
9. Which instruction is correct for a client taking metformin?
A. "Take it with food to reduce GI upset."
B. "Take it on an empty stomach."
C. "Stop it before exercise."
D. "Take it only when glucose is high."
Answer: A
Metformin is taken with meals to reduce GI side effects. It is not taken only
when glucose is high; it is a scheduled medication.
10. A client receiving heparin has an aPTT of 95 seconds. What is the priority
action?
A. Increase the dose
B. Hold the heparin and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K
D. Continue as prescribed
Answer: B
Therapeutic aPTT for heparin is typically 1.5–2.5 times control (roughly 60–80
seconds). 95 seconds indicates increased bleeding risk. Hold and notify.
Protamine sulfate is the antidote, not vitamin K.
11. Which medication can cause a dry cough as an adverse effect?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
C. Metoprolol
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Exam with NGN 70 Questions and 100%
Correct Answers to Score 98% and Above
in the New 2026 RN ATI Pharmacology
Proctored Assessment, Updated Exam
Preparation and Comprehensive
Pharmacology Review.
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin. Which finding should the nurse
report before giving the dose?
A. Heart rate 88 bpm
B. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
D. Digoxin level 0.8 ng/mL
Answer: B
Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Normal potassium is
roughly 3.5–5.0 mEq/L, so 3.1 is low and should be reported. A HR of 88 is
acceptable (hold if <60 in adults). BP is normal. Therapeutic digoxin range is about
0.5–2.0 ng/mL, so 0.8 is fine.
2. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
,Answer: B
Warfarin is monitored with PT/INR. Heparin is monitored with aPTT. Platelets
and bleeding time are not the standard monitoring parameters for warfarin.
3. Which medication should be withheld if the client's heart rate is 52 bpm?
A. Metoprolol
B. Amlodipine
C. Furosemide
D. Lisinopril
Answer: A
Beta-blockers like metoprolol lower heart rate and are typically held if HR is
below 60 bpm. Amlodipine, furosemide, and lisinopril do not require holding for
bradycardia.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about levothyroxine. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I will take it at bedtime with milk."
B. "I will take it in the morning on an empty stomach."
C. "I will take it with my calcium supplement."
D. "I will stop it when I feel better."
Answer: B
Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach, 30–60
minutes before breakfast. Calcium and dairy interfere with absorption. It is a
lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism.
5. Which adverse effect is most concerning with gentamicin?
A. Constipation
B. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperglycemia
,Answer: B
Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are known for ototoxicity and
nephrotoxicity. Monitoring of renal function and hearing is essential.
6. A client on furosemide should be monitored for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B
Loop diuretics like furosemide cause potassium loss. Monitor potassium and
watch for signs of hypokalemia (cramps, weakness, dysrhythmias).
7. Which medication is a first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine
C. Prednisone
D. Albuterol
Answer: B
IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Antihistamines and
steroids are adjuncts, not first-line.
8. A nurse is reviewing spironolactone. Which finding requires intervention?
A. Potassium 5.6 mEq/L
B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
C. BP 128/80 mm Hg
D. Urine output 50 mL/hr
Answer: A
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. A potassium of 5.6 is elevated
, and could cause dysrhythmias; the medication should be held and the provider
notified.
9. Which instruction is correct for a client taking metformin?
A. "Take it with food to reduce GI upset."
B. "Take it on an empty stomach."
C. "Stop it before exercise."
D. "Take it only when glucose is high."
Answer: A
Metformin is taken with meals to reduce GI side effects. It is not taken only
when glucose is high; it is a scheduled medication.
10. A client receiving heparin has an aPTT of 95 seconds. What is the priority
action?
A. Increase the dose
B. Hold the heparin and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K
D. Continue as prescribed
Answer: B
Therapeutic aPTT for heparin is typically 1.5–2.5 times control (roughly 60–80
seconds). 95 seconds indicates increased bleeding risk. Hold and notify.
Protamine sulfate is the antidote, not vitamin K.
11. Which medication can cause a dry cough as an adverse effect?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
C. Metoprolol
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
