ATI RN Medical-Surgical 2026 Proctored
Exam with NGN Questions and 100% Correct
Answers to Score 98% and Above in the New
2026 RN ATI Medical-Surgical Proctored
Assessment, Updated Exam Review
Materials, Comprehensive Study Guide and
Practice Questions
1. A nurse is caring for a client 24 hours after abdominal surgery. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
• A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
• B. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
• C. Respiratory rate of 32/min and shallow breathing
• D. Incisional pain rated 4/10
C is correct. Tachypnea with shallow breathing 24 hours post-op suggests
atelectasis or respiratory compromise — a priority. A low-grade fever and
serosanguineous drainage are expected. Pain of 4/10 is manageable.
2. A client is scheduled for surgery and asks why they must be NPO before the
procedure. What is the nurse's best response?
• A. "It prevents you from feeling hungry during surgery."
• B. "It reduces the risk of aspiration during anesthesia."
• C. "It helps the anesthesia work faster."
• D. "It prevents dehydration during surgery."
B is correct. The primary purpose of NPO status is to prevent aspiration of
stomach contents during induction of anesthesia.
,3. A nurse is assessing a client with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which
finding should the nurse expect?
• A. Peaked T waves on ECG
• B. Muscle weakness and leg cramps
• C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• D. Hypertension and bradycardia
B is correct. Hypokalemia causes muscle weakness, fatigue, and leg cramps.
Peaked T waves indicate hyperkalemia.
4. A client with heart failure has a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which
manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
• A. Confusion and headache
• B. Thirst and dry mucous membranes
• C. Muscle twitching and seizures
• D. Increased urine output
A is correct. Hyponatremia primarily affects neurological function, causing
confusion, headache, and lethargy.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of an incentive spirometer after
surgery. Which statement indicates understanding?
• A. "It will help control my pain."
• B. "It will help prevent my lungs from collapsing."
• C. "It will prevent blood clots in my legs."
• D. "It will help my incision heal faster."
, B is correct. Incentive spirometry prevents atelectasis (alveolar collapse) by
encouraging deep lung expansion.
6. A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. The
nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. Which action should the nurse take first?
• A. Administer prescribed morphine
• B. Apply oxygen and notify the provider
• C. Assist the client to ambulate
• D. Obtain a chest x-ray
B is correct. Oxygen is the priority to maintain oxygenation while notifying the
provider. Ambulation is contraindicated.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving IV fluids. Which finding indicates fluid
overload?
• A. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
• B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
• C. Crackles in the lung bases and jugular vein distention
• D. Dry mucous membranes
C is correct. Crackles and JVD are classic signs of fluid volume excess.
8. Which client is at greatest risk for malignant hyperthermia during surgery?
• A. A client with a history of asthma
• B. A client with a family history of malignant hyperthermia
• C. A client taking beta-blockers
• D. A client with diabetes mellitus
, B is correct. Malignant hyperthermia is an inherited autosomal dominant
disorder triggered by certain anesthetic agents.
9. A nurse is caring for a client with a Jackson-Pratt drain. Which action is
appropriate?
• A. Empty the drain every 24 hours only
• B. Compress the bulb to maintain suction
• C. Irrigate the drain with sterile saline
• D. Clamp the drain when the client ambulates
B is correct. The JP drain requires the bulb to be compressed to create
negative pressure for suction.
10. A client is 12 hours post-op and has not voided. Which action should the
nurse take first?
• A. Insert a urinary catheter
• B. Assess the bladder for distention
• C. Encourage oral fluids
• D. Administer a diuretic
B is correct. Assessment comes first. Bladder scanning or palpation
determines if retention is present.
Unit 2: Cardiovascular Disorders
11. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which lab value should
the nurse monitor most closely?
• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
Exam with NGN Questions and 100% Correct
Answers to Score 98% and Above in the New
2026 RN ATI Medical-Surgical Proctored
Assessment, Updated Exam Review
Materials, Comprehensive Study Guide and
Practice Questions
1. A nurse is caring for a client 24 hours after abdominal surgery. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
• A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
• B. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
• C. Respiratory rate of 32/min and shallow breathing
• D. Incisional pain rated 4/10
C is correct. Tachypnea with shallow breathing 24 hours post-op suggests
atelectasis or respiratory compromise — a priority. A low-grade fever and
serosanguineous drainage are expected. Pain of 4/10 is manageable.
2. A client is scheduled for surgery and asks why they must be NPO before the
procedure. What is the nurse's best response?
• A. "It prevents you from feeling hungry during surgery."
• B. "It reduces the risk of aspiration during anesthesia."
• C. "It helps the anesthesia work faster."
• D. "It prevents dehydration during surgery."
B is correct. The primary purpose of NPO status is to prevent aspiration of
stomach contents during induction of anesthesia.
,3. A nurse is assessing a client with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which
finding should the nurse expect?
• A. Peaked T waves on ECG
• B. Muscle weakness and leg cramps
• C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• D. Hypertension and bradycardia
B is correct. Hypokalemia causes muscle weakness, fatigue, and leg cramps.
Peaked T waves indicate hyperkalemia.
4. A client with heart failure has a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which
manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
• A. Confusion and headache
• B. Thirst and dry mucous membranes
• C. Muscle twitching and seizures
• D. Increased urine output
A is correct. Hyponatremia primarily affects neurological function, causing
confusion, headache, and lethargy.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of an incentive spirometer after
surgery. Which statement indicates understanding?
• A. "It will help control my pain."
• B. "It will help prevent my lungs from collapsing."
• C. "It will prevent blood clots in my legs."
• D. "It will help my incision heal faster."
, B is correct. Incentive spirometry prevents atelectasis (alveolar collapse) by
encouraging deep lung expansion.
6. A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. The
nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. Which action should the nurse take first?
• A. Administer prescribed morphine
• B. Apply oxygen and notify the provider
• C. Assist the client to ambulate
• D. Obtain a chest x-ray
B is correct. Oxygen is the priority to maintain oxygenation while notifying the
provider. Ambulation is contraindicated.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving IV fluids. Which finding indicates fluid
overload?
• A. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
• B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
• C. Crackles in the lung bases and jugular vein distention
• D. Dry mucous membranes
C is correct. Crackles and JVD are classic signs of fluid volume excess.
8. Which client is at greatest risk for malignant hyperthermia during surgery?
• A. A client with a history of asthma
• B. A client with a family history of malignant hyperthermia
• C. A client taking beta-blockers
• D. A client with diabetes mellitus
, B is correct. Malignant hyperthermia is an inherited autosomal dominant
disorder triggered by certain anesthetic agents.
9. A nurse is caring for a client with a Jackson-Pratt drain. Which action is
appropriate?
• A. Empty the drain every 24 hours only
• B. Compress the bulb to maintain suction
• C. Irrigate the drain with sterile saline
• D. Clamp the drain when the client ambulates
B is correct. The JP drain requires the bulb to be compressed to create
negative pressure for suction.
10. A client is 12 hours post-op and has not voided. Which action should the
nurse take first?
• A. Insert a urinary catheter
• B. Assess the bladder for distention
• C. Encourage oral fluids
• D. Administer a diuretic
B is correct. Assessment comes first. Bladder scanning or palpation
determines if retention is present.
Unit 2: Cardiovascular Disorders
11. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which lab value should
the nurse monitor most closely?
• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
