ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026
Exit Exam with NGN 180 Questions and
100% Correct Answers to Score 98% and
Above in the New 2026 RN ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Assessment
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has a new
prescription for furosemide. Which assessment finding should the
nurse report immediately?
A. Urine output of 60 mL/hr
B. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L
C. Weight loss of 1 kg since admission
D. Blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss. A K+ of 2.8
is critically low and risks dysrhythmias. The other findings are expected
or acceptable.
2. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates possible
toxicity?
A. Heart rate 62 bpm
B. Visual halos and yellow-green vision
C. Blood pressure 128/80 mm Hg
D. Mild ankle edema
Visual disturbances (halos, color changes) are classic digoxin toxicity
signs. Therapeutic digoxin lowers HR, so 62 alone isn't alarming.
,3. Which client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. Client with COPD reporting mild shortness of breath after walking
B. Client 2 days post-op reporting sudden calf pain and swelling
C. Client requesting pain medication for a headache
D. Client with diabetes requesting a snack
Sudden calf pain/swelling suggests DVT, which can embolize to the
lungs. This is the highest-risk finding.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. Which statement shows
correct understanding?
A. "I should increase my vitamin K intake."
B. "I need regular blood tests to check my INR."
C. "I can take aspirin for headaches without asking."
D. "I should stop the medication if I bruise."
Warfarin requires INR monitoring. Vitamin K antagonizes it; aspirin
increases bleeding risk; never stop without provider guidance.
5. Which finding in a client receiving heparin requires immediate
action?
A. Platelets 210,000/mm³
B. Platelets 85,000/mm³
C. INR 1.1
D. aPTT 45 seconds
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is life-threatening. A
falling platelet count requires stopping heparin immediately.
,6. A client with an IV infusion of potassium chloride reports burning at
the site. What should the nurse do FIRST?
A. Stop the infusion and assess the site
B. Slow the infusion and continue
C. Apply a warm compress
D. Document and reassess in 1 hour
Burning may indicate infiltration or phlebitis. Stop, assess, then act.
Never continue an infusion causing burning.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which
finding is most concerning?
A. Pain at McBurney's point
B. Sudden relief of pain followed by rigid abdomen
C. Low-grade fever
D. Nausea and vomiting
Sudden pain relief followed by rigidity suggests rupture — a surgical
emergency.
8. Which client is at highest risk for falls?
A. Client with hypertension on a beta blocker
B. Client on morphine and a benzodiazepine
C. Client with type 2 diabetes on metformin
D. Client with asthma on an inhaler
Opioids plus benzodiazepines cause sedation and impaired balance
— a high-risk combination.
, 9. A nurse is caring for a client in Buck's traction. Which action is
correct?
A. Remove weights when repositioning
B. Ensure weights hang freely and don't touch the floor
C. Elevate the foot of the bed
D. Loosen the traction straps at night
Weights must hang freely to maintain continuous traction. Never
remove them without an order.
10. A client with a new colostomy asks about diet. Which response is
best?
A. "Avoid all fiber."
B. "Chew food well and introduce new foods one at a time."
C. "Drink less fluid to reduce output."
D. "Eat only liquids for the first month."
Chewing well and gradual introduction prevent blockage. Fiber and
fluids are encouraged.
11. Which lab value is most concerning in a client with renal failure?
A. BUN 22 mg/dL
B. Potassium 6.4 mEq/L
C. Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL
D. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
Hyperkalemia is life-threatening in renal failure due to dysrhythmia
risk.
Exit Exam with NGN 180 Questions and
100% Correct Answers to Score 98% and
Above in the New 2026 RN ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Assessment
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has a new
prescription for furosemide. Which assessment finding should the
nurse report immediately?
A. Urine output of 60 mL/hr
B. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L
C. Weight loss of 1 kg since admission
D. Blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss. A K+ of 2.8
is critically low and risks dysrhythmias. The other findings are expected
or acceptable.
2. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates possible
toxicity?
A. Heart rate 62 bpm
B. Visual halos and yellow-green vision
C. Blood pressure 128/80 mm Hg
D. Mild ankle edema
Visual disturbances (halos, color changes) are classic digoxin toxicity
signs. Therapeutic digoxin lowers HR, so 62 alone isn't alarming.
,3. Which client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. Client with COPD reporting mild shortness of breath after walking
B. Client 2 days post-op reporting sudden calf pain and swelling
C. Client requesting pain medication for a headache
D. Client with diabetes requesting a snack
Sudden calf pain/swelling suggests DVT, which can embolize to the
lungs. This is the highest-risk finding.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. Which statement shows
correct understanding?
A. "I should increase my vitamin K intake."
B. "I need regular blood tests to check my INR."
C. "I can take aspirin for headaches without asking."
D. "I should stop the medication if I bruise."
Warfarin requires INR monitoring. Vitamin K antagonizes it; aspirin
increases bleeding risk; never stop without provider guidance.
5. Which finding in a client receiving heparin requires immediate
action?
A. Platelets 210,000/mm³
B. Platelets 85,000/mm³
C. INR 1.1
D. aPTT 45 seconds
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is life-threatening. A
falling platelet count requires stopping heparin immediately.
,6. A client with an IV infusion of potassium chloride reports burning at
the site. What should the nurse do FIRST?
A. Stop the infusion and assess the site
B. Slow the infusion and continue
C. Apply a warm compress
D. Document and reassess in 1 hour
Burning may indicate infiltration or phlebitis. Stop, assess, then act.
Never continue an infusion causing burning.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which
finding is most concerning?
A. Pain at McBurney's point
B. Sudden relief of pain followed by rigid abdomen
C. Low-grade fever
D. Nausea and vomiting
Sudden pain relief followed by rigidity suggests rupture — a surgical
emergency.
8. Which client is at highest risk for falls?
A. Client with hypertension on a beta blocker
B. Client on morphine and a benzodiazepine
C. Client with type 2 diabetes on metformin
D. Client with asthma on an inhaler
Opioids plus benzodiazepines cause sedation and impaired balance
— a high-risk combination.
, 9. A nurse is caring for a client in Buck's traction. Which action is
correct?
A. Remove weights when repositioning
B. Ensure weights hang freely and don't touch the floor
C. Elevate the foot of the bed
D. Loosen the traction straps at night
Weights must hang freely to maintain continuous traction. Never
remove them without an order.
10. A client with a new colostomy asks about diet. Which response is
best?
A. "Avoid all fiber."
B. "Chew food well and introduce new foods one at a time."
C. "Drink less fluid to reduce output."
D. "Eat only liquids for the first month."
Chewing well and gradual introduction prevent blockage. Fiber and
fluids are encouraged.
11. Which lab value is most concerning in a client with renal failure?
A. BUN 22 mg/dL
B. Potassium 6.4 mEq/L
C. Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL
D. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
Hyperkalemia is life-threatening in renal failure due to dysrhythmia
risk.
