• NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026
EXAM
NSG 530 ACTUAL EXAM 2026 5/2027 | Advanced
Pathophysiology – Wilkes University | Exams 1-4
Comprehensive Bank | Verified Q&A with Detailed
Rationales | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
P 1
, • NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026
EXAM
An obese, male client with a history of gout and a sedentary lifestyle has been advised by his primary care
provider to avoid organ meats, certain fish, and other foods that are high in purines. The care provider is
demonstrating an awareness of the client's susceptibility to which of the following types of kidney stones?
A) Calcium stones
B) Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones
C) Uric acid stones
D) Cystine stones - Correct Answer :Ans: C
Feedback:
Uric acid stones develop in conditions of gout and when high concentrations of uric acid in the urine. Unlike
radiopaque calcium stones, uric acid stones are not visible on x-ray films. According to Table 25-2, these stones
develop in clients who eat a high-purine diet like Atkins.
A client has been diagnosed with gram-negative pneumonia of the lower lobe. Knowing that gram-negative
bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide endotoxin on their outer cell membrane, the health care provider should be
assessing the client for which pathophysiological end result?
A) Damage to cellular mitochondria
B) Increased ATP levels
C) Activation of the p53 protein
D) Apoptosis - Correct Answer :Ans: D
Feedback:
The extrinsic pathway of apoptosis involves extracellular signaling proteins that bind to cell surface molecules
called death receptors and trigger apoptosis. The end result includes activation of endonucleases that cause
fragmentation of DNA and cell death. In addition to TNF and Fas ligand, primary signaling molecules known to
activate the extrinsic pathway include TNF-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL); the cytokine interleukin-1
(IL-1); and lipopolysaccharide (LPS), the endotoxin found in the outer cell membrane of gram-negative bacteria.
DNA damage, activation of the p53 protein, and decreased ATP levels are associated with the intrinsic pathway.
A person eating peanuts starts choking and collapses. His airway obstruction is partially cleared, but he remains
hypoxic until he reaches the hospital. The health care providers will be assessing this client for which of the
following physiological events? Select all that apply.
P 2
, • NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026
EXAM
A) Cerebral infarction
B) Coagulation necrosis
C) Rapid phagocytosis
D) Protein p53 deficiency - Correct Answer :Ans: A, B
Feedback:
Tissue infarction is caused by prolonged oxygen deprivation, and the resulting large group of dead cells
coagulates in the damaged area. During coagulation necrosis, acidosis develops and denatures the enzymatic
and structural proteins of the cell. Phagocytosis occurs rapidly during apoptosis, so it does not elicit an
inflammatory response. Protein p53 activation initiates apoptosis.
A client with diabetes and severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great
toe of one foot. The client asks, "How this can happen?" Which of the following pathophysiologic processes
should the nurse explain to this client? "More than likely, your gangrene is caused by:
A) Inappropriate activation of apoptosis, which means death of your cells."
B) Bacterial invasion into the foot and toe."
C) Impaired arterial blood supply to your toe."
D) Metaplastic cellular changes in your toe." - Correct Answer :Ans: C
Feedback:
Dry gangrene is often a result of impaired arterial blood supply to the extremities. A bacterial etiology is more
common in wet gangrene, whereas neither metaplasia nor activation of apoptosis is implicated in cases of dry
gangrene.
A group of elderly residents were commenting on how many cell functions decline with age. One resident
commented that many of his friends who lived under large electromagnetic towers seemed to experience aging
at an accelerated rate in comparison with residents who lived nearby in lakefront housing. This observation is the
basis for which theory on aging?
A) Theories of genetic influences
B) Programmed cell receptor theories
C) Insufficient telomerase enzyme theory
D) Error theory associated with DNA damage - Correct Answer :Ans: D
Feedback:
P 3
, • NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026
EXAM
Error theory suggests that aging results from DNA mutation or faulty repair. Another group of theories of aging
focuses on programmed cell changes with genetic influences that systematically cause cell senescence.
Elimination of receptor sites is not part of aging theory. Telomerase enzyme is thought to reduce the shortening
of the chromosomes and loss of telomere DNA with each cell replication.
Which of the following facts underlies the concept of replicative senescence?
A) Genes controlling longevity are present or absent in varying quantities among different individuals.
B) Telomeres become progressively shorter in successive generations of a cell.
C) The damaging influence of free radicals increases exponentially in later generations of a cell.
D) Aging produces mutations in DNA and deficits in DNA repair. - Correct Answer :Ans: B
Feedback:
Replicative senescence implies that cells have limited capacity for reproduction, largely as a result of the
shortening of telomeres and consequent chromosomal damage. Genetic theories, the influence of free radicals,
and DNA mutation are not central to the concept of replicative senescence.
A couple has chosen to pay for the harvesting and storage of umbilical cord blood after the delivery of their child
to secure a future source of embryonic stem cells. What is the most likely rationale for the couple's decision?
A) The stem cells may be able to produce a wide range of body cells.
B) The embryonic stem cells allow stable and permanent tissues to enter mitosis.
C) The stem cells can change the proliferative capacity of other cells.
D) The embryonic stem cells remove cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors from the body. - Correct Answer :Ans: A
Feedback:
Embryonic stem cells hold the potential for broad differentiation. They do not change the proliferative capacity
of existing cells and they do not foster mitosis by removing CKIs.
A client with a complete tear of the rotator cuff in the right shoulder was given the choice between surgery and
stem cell transplant. The client chose to try the stem cell injection. The client asked the health care provider,
"How does this work on my shoulder?" The best response would be:
A) Bone marrow stem cells have been shown to generate cartilage, bone, and muscle when injected directly into
the injured site.
B) The stem cells will circulate through your arterial system and come to rest in any area that is inflamed and in
need of repair.
P 4
EXAM
NSG 530 ACTUAL EXAM 2026 5/2027 | Advanced
Pathophysiology – Wilkes University | Exams 1-4
Comprehensive Bank | Verified Q&A with Detailed
Rationales | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
P 1
, • NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026
EXAM
An obese, male client with a history of gout and a sedentary lifestyle has been advised by his primary care
provider to avoid organ meats, certain fish, and other foods that are high in purines. The care provider is
demonstrating an awareness of the client's susceptibility to which of the following types of kidney stones?
A) Calcium stones
B) Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones
C) Uric acid stones
D) Cystine stones - Correct Answer :Ans: C
Feedback:
Uric acid stones develop in conditions of gout and when high concentrations of uric acid in the urine. Unlike
radiopaque calcium stones, uric acid stones are not visible on x-ray films. According to Table 25-2, these stones
develop in clients who eat a high-purine diet like Atkins.
A client has been diagnosed with gram-negative pneumonia of the lower lobe. Knowing that gram-negative
bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide endotoxin on their outer cell membrane, the health care provider should be
assessing the client for which pathophysiological end result?
A) Damage to cellular mitochondria
B) Increased ATP levels
C) Activation of the p53 protein
D) Apoptosis - Correct Answer :Ans: D
Feedback:
The extrinsic pathway of apoptosis involves extracellular signaling proteins that bind to cell surface molecules
called death receptors and trigger apoptosis. The end result includes activation of endonucleases that cause
fragmentation of DNA and cell death. In addition to TNF and Fas ligand, primary signaling molecules known to
activate the extrinsic pathway include TNF-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL); the cytokine interleukin-1
(IL-1); and lipopolysaccharide (LPS), the endotoxin found in the outer cell membrane of gram-negative bacteria.
DNA damage, activation of the p53 protein, and decreased ATP levels are associated with the intrinsic pathway.
A person eating peanuts starts choking and collapses. His airway obstruction is partially cleared, but he remains
hypoxic until he reaches the hospital. The health care providers will be assessing this client for which of the
following physiological events? Select all that apply.
P 2
, • NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026
EXAM
A) Cerebral infarction
B) Coagulation necrosis
C) Rapid phagocytosis
D) Protein p53 deficiency - Correct Answer :Ans: A, B
Feedback:
Tissue infarction is caused by prolonged oxygen deprivation, and the resulting large group of dead cells
coagulates in the damaged area. During coagulation necrosis, acidosis develops and denatures the enzymatic
and structural proteins of the cell. Phagocytosis occurs rapidly during apoptosis, so it does not elicit an
inflammatory response. Protein p53 activation initiates apoptosis.
A client with diabetes and severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great
toe of one foot. The client asks, "How this can happen?" Which of the following pathophysiologic processes
should the nurse explain to this client? "More than likely, your gangrene is caused by:
A) Inappropriate activation of apoptosis, which means death of your cells."
B) Bacterial invasion into the foot and toe."
C) Impaired arterial blood supply to your toe."
D) Metaplastic cellular changes in your toe." - Correct Answer :Ans: C
Feedback:
Dry gangrene is often a result of impaired arterial blood supply to the extremities. A bacterial etiology is more
common in wet gangrene, whereas neither metaplasia nor activation of apoptosis is implicated in cases of dry
gangrene.
A group of elderly residents were commenting on how many cell functions decline with age. One resident
commented that many of his friends who lived under large electromagnetic towers seemed to experience aging
at an accelerated rate in comparison with residents who lived nearby in lakefront housing. This observation is the
basis for which theory on aging?
A) Theories of genetic influences
B) Programmed cell receptor theories
C) Insufficient telomerase enzyme theory
D) Error theory associated with DNA damage - Correct Answer :Ans: D
Feedback:
P 3
, • NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026
EXAM
Error theory suggests that aging results from DNA mutation or faulty repair. Another group of theories of aging
focuses on programmed cell changes with genetic influences that systematically cause cell senescence.
Elimination of receptor sites is not part of aging theory. Telomerase enzyme is thought to reduce the shortening
of the chromosomes and loss of telomere DNA with each cell replication.
Which of the following facts underlies the concept of replicative senescence?
A) Genes controlling longevity are present or absent in varying quantities among different individuals.
B) Telomeres become progressively shorter in successive generations of a cell.
C) The damaging influence of free radicals increases exponentially in later generations of a cell.
D) Aging produces mutations in DNA and deficits in DNA repair. - Correct Answer :Ans: B
Feedback:
Replicative senescence implies that cells have limited capacity for reproduction, largely as a result of the
shortening of telomeres and consequent chromosomal damage. Genetic theories, the influence of free radicals,
and DNA mutation are not central to the concept of replicative senescence.
A couple has chosen to pay for the harvesting and storage of umbilical cord blood after the delivery of their child
to secure a future source of embryonic stem cells. What is the most likely rationale for the couple's decision?
A) The stem cells may be able to produce a wide range of body cells.
B) The embryonic stem cells allow stable and permanent tissues to enter mitosis.
C) The stem cells can change the proliferative capacity of other cells.
D) The embryonic stem cells remove cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors from the body. - Correct Answer :Ans: A
Feedback:
Embryonic stem cells hold the potential for broad differentiation. They do not change the proliferative capacity
of existing cells and they do not foster mitosis by removing CKIs.
A client with a complete tear of the rotator cuff in the right shoulder was given the choice between surgery and
stem cell transplant. The client chose to try the stem cell injection. The client asked the health care provider,
"How does this work on my shoulder?" The best response would be:
A) Bone marrow stem cells have been shown to generate cartilage, bone, and muscle when injected directly into
the injured site.
B) The stem cells will circulate through your arterial system and come to rest in any area that is inflamed and in
need of repair.
P 4
