VERIFIED QUESTIONS CORRECT & CORRECT, EXAMS OF
NURSING
Year 2026-2027 | 100 Questions | 100% VERIFIED
Introduction
This question bank measures readiness for the Certified Pediatric Hematology Oncology
Nurse credential administered through the Association of Pediatric Hematology/Oncology
Nurses. Content is organized around eight blueprint domains: Biology and Pathophysiology
of Pediatric Cancers; Treatment Modalities and Hazardous Drug Safety; Symptom
Management and Palliative Care; Psychosocial Support and Family-Centered Care; Infection
Control and Immunosuppression Management; Pediatric Pharmacology and Dosing
Principles; Ethical, Legal, and Professional Standards in Pediatric Oncology; and Late
Effects, Survivorship, and Long-Term Follow-Up Care. Each item pairs a single best answer
with a rationale that reinforces the governing mechanism, standard, or safety principle,
supporting professional certification and pediatric hematology-oncology nursing clinical
execution. All 100 questions and 100% VERIFIED answers appear below.
1. Which age group has the highest incidence of acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
A. Children between two and five years of age
B. Adolescents between fifteen and nineteen years of age
C. Infants younger than six months of age
D. Children older than twelve years of age
Rationale: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia peaks between ages two and five, which is the most
common childhood malignancy in that window. Infant and adolescent presentations occur but
represent different distributions and, in infants, a distinctive high-risk biology, so neither age
group carries the peak incidence.
2. Which finding in a child with newly diagnosed leukemia reflects bone marrow failure
rather than leukemic infiltration of other organs?
A. Painless cervical lymphadenopathy on palpation
B. Hepatosplenomegaly on abdominal examination
C. Anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia on the complete blood count
D. Mediastinal widening on chest radiograph
Rationale: Crowding of the marrow by lymphoblasts suppresses normal hematopoiesis and
produces cytopenias with their associated pallor, bleeding, and infection risk.
Lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, and a mediastinal mass reflect extramedullary
involvement, which is significant for staging and risk classification but not for the cytopenia
mechanism.
,3. Which clinical constellation should raise immediate concern for a brain tumor with
increased intracranial pressure in a school-aged child?
A. Diffuse abdominal pain with diarrhea and low-grade fever
B. Painless swelling over the proximal tibia after minor trauma
C. Morning headache with vomiting, ataxia, and a new onset strabismus or head
tilt
D. Recurrent epistaxis with petechiae over the lower extremities
Rationale: Headache that is worst on waking, emesis, and cranial nerve findings reflect raised
intracranial pressure and posterior fossa pathology requiring urgent imaging. Abdominal
symptoms, a bony swelling after trauma, and bleeding manifestations suggest different
anatomic sites and pathophysiologies.
4. How does tumor lysis syndrome produce its characteristic metabolic derangements?
A. Rapid destruction of a large tumor cell burden releases intracellular
potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids, which precipitate hyperkalemia,
hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and secondary hypocalcemia
B. Slow tumor growth produces chronic hypokalemia and hypophosphatemia
C. Immune destruction of tumor cells depletes serum calcium without other changes
D. Renal excretion of uric acid rises faster than cellular release
Rationale: Bulk lysis overwhelms renal clearance, producing the classic electrolyte pattern
with calcium precipitation that causes hypocalcemia. Slow growth does not generate this
metabolic burden, isolated calcium depletion misstates the profile, and enhanced uric acid
excretion is the opposite of what occurs.
5. Which feature best characterizes the biology of neuroblastoma?
A. It arises from the renal parenchyma and typically presents with hematuria
B. It arises from primitive sympathetic neural crest cells and may present with an
abdominal mass, opsoclonus-myoclonus, or catecholamine excess
C. It originates in the bone marrow and presents with leukocytosis
D. It develops from retinal cells and presents with an abnormal red reflex
Rationale: Neuroblastoma derives from neural crest tissue along the sympathetic chain, and
elevated catecholamine metabolites support the diagnosis. Renal origin with hematuria
describes Wilms tumor, marrow origin describes leukemia, and an abnormal red reflex
describes retinoblastoma.
6. A toddler is brought in with a large, smooth, nontender abdominal mass that does not
cross the midline and is accompanied by hypertension. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Neuroblastoma arising in the adrenal medulla
B. Hepatoblastoma arising in the liver
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma arising in the bladder
D. Wilms tumor arising in the kidney
Rationale: Wilms tumor typically presents as a smooth flank mass that characteristically does
not cross the midline, and it may be associated with hypertension through renin effects.
, Neuroblastoma often crosses the midline and is irregular and fixed, hepatoblastoma presents
with hepatic findings, and pelvic rhabdomyosarcoma produces urinary and vaginal symptoms.
7. Which statement accurately describes the difference between Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin
lymphoma in children?
A. Hodgkin lymphoma typically spreads in an orderly contiguous fashion and is
characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells, while non-Hodgkin lymphoma is often
disseminated at diagnosis
B. Hodgkin lymphoma is more often widely disseminated at presentation than non-
Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
D. Both diseases spread only through contiguous lymphatic channels
Rationale: Burkitt and lymphoblastic lymphomas often present with widespread disease and
emergency findings, whereas Hodgkin lymphoma tends to progress by nodal echelon and
shows characteristic Reed-Sternberg cells. Reversing the dissemination pattern, attributing
Reed-Sternberg cells to non-Hodgkin disease, and limiting both to contiguous spread misstate
their distinct paths of progression.
8. Which sarcoma most typically arises in the metaphysis of long bones of adolescents and
presents with localized pain exacerbated at night?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing sarcoma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Neuroblastoma
Rationale: Osteosarcoma arises from bone-forming mesenchyme near the metaphysis of long
bones in adolescents and produces progressive pain, often worse at night. Ewing sarcoma
involves bone but arises more often in the diaphysis and has a distinct translocation profile,
rhabdomyosarcoma arises in soft tissue, and neuroblastoma arises from neural crest tissue
rather than bone.
9. What is the significance of hyperleukocytosis in a child newly diagnosed with leukemia?
A. It indicates that the leukemia is likely to respond to smaller doses of chemotherapy
B. It confirms the diagnosis without the need for bone marrow aspiration
C. Blast counts above 100,000 place the child at high risk for leukostasis with
pulmonary and neurologic compromise requiring urgent cytoreduction
D. It protects the child against tumor lysis syndrome during induction
Rationale: Very high blast counts increase blood viscosity and predispose to sludging in the
pulmonary and cerebral microvasculature, which is a medical emergency. Hyperleukocytosis
does not indicate easier treatment, does not replace marrow confirmation of the diagnosis, and
increases rather than reduces the risk of lysis-associated complications.
10. Which clinical situation should raise suspicion for spinal cord compression in a child
with cancer?
A. Unilateral knee swelling with limited range of motion
B. Isolated headache relieved by acetaminophen