Burns’ Pediatric Primary Care
(8th Edition) — Complete Test
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Access Study Guide Q&A
GUARANTEED PASS (GRADED A+)
Question 1
A 2-month-old infant presents for a well-child visit. Which vaccine is
routinely recommended at this age?
A. Varicella
B. MMR
C. DTaP
D. Hepatitis A
Answer: C. DTaP
Rationale: DTaP is routinely administered beginning at 2 months of age
as part of the primary childhood immunization schedule. MMR,
varicella, and hepatitis A vaccines are administered later in childhood.
Question 2
Which finding in a newborn requires immediate evaluation?
A. Acrocyanosis during the first 24 hours
B. Respiratory rate of 65 breaths per minute with nasal flaring
C. Sneezing several times per day
D. Transient breast enlargement
,Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 65 breaths per minute with nasal
flaring
Rationale: Tachypnea accompanied by nasal flaring may indicate
respiratory distress and requires prompt assessment. The other findings
are common transitional newborn findings.
Question 3
A parent asks when solid foods should generally be introduced to an
infant. The nurse practitioner should recommend:
A. Birth
B. 2 months
C. Around 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C. Around 6 months
Rationale: Most infants are developmentally ready for complementary
foods at approximately 6 months while continuing breast milk or
formula.
Question 4
Which assessment finding is most consistent with acute otitis media?
A. Pearly gray tympanic membrane
B. Bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane
C. Clear external auditory canal only
D. Retracted tympanic membrane without symptoms
Answer: B. Bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane
Rationale: A bulging tympanic membrane with inflammation is a classic
sign of acute otitis media.
Question 5
,Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing sudden infant
death syndrome (SIDS)?
A. Side sleeping position
B. Soft bedding in the crib
C. Supine sleeping position
D. Co-sleeping with parents
Answer: C. Supine sleeping position
Rationale: Infants should be placed on their backs for sleep to reduce
the risk of SIDS. Soft bedding and co-sleeping increase risk.
Question 6
A school-age child has a positive rapid streptococcal test. Which
treatment is typically indicated?
A. Antiviral therapy
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. Antifungal therapy
D. No treatment
Answer: B. Antibiotic therapy
Rationale: Group A streptococcal pharyngitis is treated with
appropriate antibiotics to reduce symptoms and prevent complications.
Question 7
Which body mass index (BMI) percentile defines obesity in children and
adolescents?
A. Below the 5th percentile
B. 50th percentile
C. At or above the 95th percentile
D. At or above the 75th percentile
, Answer: C. At or above the 95th percentile
Rationale: Childhood obesity is defined as a BMI at or above the 95th
percentile for age and sex.
Question 8
A child with asthma reports nighttime symptoms twice weekly. This
finding suggests:
A. Well-controlled asthma only
B. Need for further asthma assessment and possible treatment
adjustment
C. Immediate hospitalization
D. Resolution of asthma
Answer: B. Need for further asthma assessment and possible
treatment adjustment
Rationale: Frequent nighttime symptoms may indicate inadequate
asthma control and warrant reassessment of management.
Question 9
Which developmental milestone is expected in most 12-month-old
children?
A. Riding a tricycle
B. Walking independently or taking a few steps
C. Reading simple words
D. Skipping
Answer: B. Walking independently or taking a few steps
Rationale: Many children begin walking independently around 12
months of age.
Question 10
(8th Edition) — Complete Test
Bank (All Chapters | Instant
Access Study Guide Q&A
GUARANTEED PASS (GRADED A+)
Question 1
A 2-month-old infant presents for a well-child visit. Which vaccine is
routinely recommended at this age?
A. Varicella
B. MMR
C. DTaP
D. Hepatitis A
Answer: C. DTaP
Rationale: DTaP is routinely administered beginning at 2 months of age
as part of the primary childhood immunization schedule. MMR,
varicella, and hepatitis A vaccines are administered later in childhood.
Question 2
Which finding in a newborn requires immediate evaluation?
A. Acrocyanosis during the first 24 hours
B. Respiratory rate of 65 breaths per minute with nasal flaring
C. Sneezing several times per day
D. Transient breast enlargement
,Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 65 breaths per minute with nasal
flaring
Rationale: Tachypnea accompanied by nasal flaring may indicate
respiratory distress and requires prompt assessment. The other findings
are common transitional newborn findings.
Question 3
A parent asks when solid foods should generally be introduced to an
infant. The nurse practitioner should recommend:
A. Birth
B. 2 months
C. Around 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C. Around 6 months
Rationale: Most infants are developmentally ready for complementary
foods at approximately 6 months while continuing breast milk or
formula.
Question 4
Which assessment finding is most consistent with acute otitis media?
A. Pearly gray tympanic membrane
B. Bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane
C. Clear external auditory canal only
D. Retracted tympanic membrane without symptoms
Answer: B. Bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane
Rationale: A bulging tympanic membrane with inflammation is a classic
sign of acute otitis media.
Question 5
,Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing sudden infant
death syndrome (SIDS)?
A. Side sleeping position
B. Soft bedding in the crib
C. Supine sleeping position
D. Co-sleeping with parents
Answer: C. Supine sleeping position
Rationale: Infants should be placed on their backs for sleep to reduce
the risk of SIDS. Soft bedding and co-sleeping increase risk.
Question 6
A school-age child has a positive rapid streptococcal test. Which
treatment is typically indicated?
A. Antiviral therapy
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. Antifungal therapy
D. No treatment
Answer: B. Antibiotic therapy
Rationale: Group A streptococcal pharyngitis is treated with
appropriate antibiotics to reduce symptoms and prevent complications.
Question 7
Which body mass index (BMI) percentile defines obesity in children and
adolescents?
A. Below the 5th percentile
B. 50th percentile
C. At or above the 95th percentile
D. At or above the 75th percentile
, Answer: C. At or above the 95th percentile
Rationale: Childhood obesity is defined as a BMI at or above the 95th
percentile for age and sex.
Question 8
A child with asthma reports nighttime symptoms twice weekly. This
finding suggests:
A. Well-controlled asthma only
B. Need for further asthma assessment and possible treatment
adjustment
C. Immediate hospitalization
D. Resolution of asthma
Answer: B. Need for further asthma assessment and possible
treatment adjustment
Rationale: Frequent nighttime symptoms may indicate inadequate
asthma control and warrant reassessment of management.
Question 9
Which developmental milestone is expected in most 12-month-old
children?
A. Riding a tricycle
B. Walking independently or taking a few steps
C. Reading simple words
D. Skipping
Answer: B. Walking independently or taking a few steps
Rationale: Many children begin walking independently around 12
months of age.
Question 10
