Virtual ATI 2026/2027 | Virtual-ATI NCLEX-RN Review &
Green Light Study Guide | ATI Virtual-ATI Comprehensive
Predictor, NCLEX-RN Practice Questions, BoardVitals, NGN
Clinical Judgment, Adaptive CAT Practice, Nursing Content
Review, Focused Remediation, Test-Taking Strategies,
Pharmacology, Medical-Surgical, Fundamentals, Maternal-
Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Community Health &
Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who has a new
prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings should the
nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
A. Heart rate of 58/min
B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Nausea and vomiting
Rationale: Nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and visual disturbances (such as
yellow-green halos) are classic early manifestations of digoxin toxicity.
While bradycardia can also indicate toxicity, a heart rate of 58/min may be
within normal limits for some clients. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L is
within the expected reference range. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is
not directly indicative of digoxin toxicity.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours
postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing
B. Client reports pain at the surgical site
C. Shortness of breath and chest pain
D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100.0°F)
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Shortness of breath and chest pain
Rationale: Shortness of breath and chest pain following hip arthroplasty are
classic manifestations of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening
complication requiring immediate intervention. Serous drainage, incisional
pain, and a low-grade fever are expected findings following surgery.
,Question 3: A nurse is preparing to administer packed RBCs to a
client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the client's vital signs
B. Verify the client's blood type
C. Initiate the transfusion slowly
D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Obtain the client's vital signs
Rationale: The nurse should obtain baseline vital signs before initiating a
blood transfusion. This provides a baseline for comparison if a transfusion
reaction occurs. Verifying blood type is important but obtaining vital signs
is the first action. Initiating the transfusion and administering a diuretic
occur after the baseline assessment.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total
parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should
the nurse take?
A. Administer TPN through a peripheral IV line
B. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours
C. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours
D. Discontinue TPN abruptly if the client is able to eat
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours
Rationale: TPN contains high concentrations of dextrose, which can cause
hyperglycemia. The nurse should monitor blood glucose levels regularly.
TPN should be administered through a central line, not a peripheral line.
TPN tubing should be changed every 24 hours, not 72 hours. TPN should
never be discontinued abruptly due to risk of hypoglycemia.
Question 5: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who
has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include?
A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
B. Use a soft toothbrush when brushing teeth
C. Take aspirin for headaches
D. Avoid using electric razors
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use a soft toothbrush when brushing teeth
,Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases bleeding risk. Using a
soft toothbrush reduces the risk of bleeding gums. Clients should maintain
consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods (like green leafy vegetables), not
increase them. Aspirin should be avoided due to increased bleeding risk.
Electric razors should be used instead of straight razors to reduce bleeding
risk.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and
is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the
nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes excretion of
potassium, which can lead to hypokalemia. Hypertension is treated, not
caused, by furosemide. Hyperkalemia is not an adverse effect of loop
diuretics. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of furosemide.
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute
alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Naloxone
B. Lorazepam
C. Methadone
D. Disulfiram
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Lorazepam
Rationale: Benzodiazepines such as lorazepam are the first-line treatment
for acute alcohol withdrawal to prevent seizures and manage symptoms.
Naloxone is used for opioid overdose. Methadone is used for opioid
withdrawal. Disulfiram is used to maintain abstinence from alcohol, not for
acute withdrawal.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after
delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to
the provider?
, A. Heart rate of 140/min
B. Respiratory rate of 50/min
C. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
D. Grunting with respirations
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Grunting with respirations
Rationale: Grunting is a sign of respiratory distress in a newborn and
requires immediate intervention. Heart rate of 140/min is within the
expected reference range for a newborn. Respiratory rate of 50/min is
within the expected reference range. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet is
a normal finding in the immediate newborn period.
Question 9: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following statements
by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should take this medication at bedtime."
B. "I should take this medication with an antacid."
C. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."
D. "I should stop taking this medication if I feel better."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I should take this medication on an empty
stomach."
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, typically
30 to 60 minutes before breakfast, to enhance absorption. Taking it at
bedtime or with an antacid decreases absorption. The medication should
not be stopped abruptly, as it is a lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube
following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report immediately?
A. Bubbling in the water seal chamber during coughing
B. Serous drainage at the insertion site
C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
D. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal
chamber
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air
leak in the chest tube system, which requires immediate intervention.
Green Light Study Guide | ATI Virtual-ATI Comprehensive
Predictor, NCLEX-RN Practice Questions, BoardVitals, NGN
Clinical Judgment, Adaptive CAT Practice, Nursing Content
Review, Focused Remediation, Test-Taking Strategies,
Pharmacology, Medical-Surgical, Fundamentals, Maternal-
Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Community Health &
Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who has a new
prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings should the
nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
A. Heart rate of 58/min
B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Nausea and vomiting
Rationale: Nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and visual disturbances (such as
yellow-green halos) are classic early manifestations of digoxin toxicity.
While bradycardia can also indicate toxicity, a heart rate of 58/min may be
within normal limits for some clients. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L is
within the expected reference range. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is
not directly indicative of digoxin toxicity.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours
postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing
B. Client reports pain at the surgical site
C. Shortness of breath and chest pain
D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100.0°F)
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Shortness of breath and chest pain
Rationale: Shortness of breath and chest pain following hip arthroplasty are
classic manifestations of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening
complication requiring immediate intervention. Serous drainage, incisional
pain, and a low-grade fever are expected findings following surgery.
,Question 3: A nurse is preparing to administer packed RBCs to a
client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the client's vital signs
B. Verify the client's blood type
C. Initiate the transfusion slowly
D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Obtain the client's vital signs
Rationale: The nurse should obtain baseline vital signs before initiating a
blood transfusion. This provides a baseline for comparison if a transfusion
reaction occurs. Verifying blood type is important but obtaining vital signs
is the first action. Initiating the transfusion and administering a diuretic
occur after the baseline assessment.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total
parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should
the nurse take?
A. Administer TPN through a peripheral IV line
B. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours
C. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours
D. Discontinue TPN abruptly if the client is able to eat
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours
Rationale: TPN contains high concentrations of dextrose, which can cause
hyperglycemia. The nurse should monitor blood glucose levels regularly.
TPN should be administered through a central line, not a peripheral line.
TPN tubing should be changed every 24 hours, not 72 hours. TPN should
never be discontinued abruptly due to risk of hypoglycemia.
Question 5: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who
has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include?
A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
B. Use a soft toothbrush when brushing teeth
C. Take aspirin for headaches
D. Avoid using electric razors
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use a soft toothbrush when brushing teeth
,Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases bleeding risk. Using a
soft toothbrush reduces the risk of bleeding gums. Clients should maintain
consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods (like green leafy vegetables), not
increase them. Aspirin should be avoided due to increased bleeding risk.
Electric razors should be used instead of straight razors to reduce bleeding
risk.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and
is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the
nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes excretion of
potassium, which can lead to hypokalemia. Hypertension is treated, not
caused, by furosemide. Hyperkalemia is not an adverse effect of loop
diuretics. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of furosemide.
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute
alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Naloxone
B. Lorazepam
C. Methadone
D. Disulfiram
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Lorazepam
Rationale: Benzodiazepines such as lorazepam are the first-line treatment
for acute alcohol withdrawal to prevent seizures and manage symptoms.
Naloxone is used for opioid overdose. Methadone is used for opioid
withdrawal. Disulfiram is used to maintain abstinence from alcohol, not for
acute withdrawal.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after
delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to
the provider?
, A. Heart rate of 140/min
B. Respiratory rate of 50/min
C. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
D. Grunting with respirations
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Grunting with respirations
Rationale: Grunting is a sign of respiratory distress in a newborn and
requires immediate intervention. Heart rate of 140/min is within the
expected reference range for a newborn. Respiratory rate of 50/min is
within the expected reference range. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet is
a normal finding in the immediate newborn period.
Question 9: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following statements
by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should take this medication at bedtime."
B. "I should take this medication with an antacid."
C. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."
D. "I should stop taking this medication if I feel better."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I should take this medication on an empty
stomach."
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, typically
30 to 60 minutes before breakfast, to enhance absorption. Taking it at
bedtime or with an antacid decreases absorption. The medication should
not be stopped abruptly, as it is a lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube
following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report immediately?
A. Bubbling in the water seal chamber during coughing
B. Serous drainage at the insertion site
C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
D. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal
chamber
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air
leak in the chest tube system, which requires immediate intervention.
