NURS 6531 FINAL EXAM EXAM PREPARATION
PACK 2026 KEY CONCEPTS AND REVISION
NOTES
◉ Which is true about hypoactive sexual desire in older men?
a. Hypoactive sexual desire in older men is related to sexual
aversion.
b. Hypoactive sexual desire is a conscious choice to avoid sexual
relations.
c. Men with hypoactive sexual desire may have normal excitement
and orgasm.
d. The most common type of sexual dysfunction is hypoactive sexual
desire..
Answer: ANS: C
Men with hypoactive sexual desire have diminished response in the
desire phase of the sexual response cycle but may still experience
normal excitement and orgasm. Sexual aversion and hypoactive
desire are not related. Many people with normal sexual desires
choose not to have sexual relations; hypoactive desire is a
physiological condition. Only 16% of men have hypoactive desire.
◉ A 50-year-old man reports having erectile dysfunction (ED). What
is an important response by the provider when developing a plan of
care for this patient?
,a. Considering testosterone hormone replacement therapy
b. Evaluating the patient for cardiovascular disease
c. Prescribing an oral phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor
d. Referring the patient for psychotherapy and counseling.
Answer: ANS: B
Men under age 60 years with ED are at higher risk for cardiovascular
disease, so this patient should be evaluated for this condition. Until
the underlying cause is found, prescribing medications or hormones
is not indicated. Psychotherapy and counseling are used when
psychogenic ED is present.
◉ The provider prescribes the oral phosphodiesterase type 5
inhibitor sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction (ED) in a 65-year-old
male patient. What will be included when teaching this patient
about taking this medication? (Select all that apply.)
a. The medication is best taken on an empty stomach.
b. The medication should be taken with a fatty food or meal.
c. The medication's effects may last for 24 to 36 hours.
d. This medication has a rapid onset and short duration of action.
e. This medication may be taken once daily..
Answer: ANS: A, D
Sildenafil has a rapid onset and short duration of action and should
be taken on an empty stomach. Fatty foods may delay or interfere
,with absorption. This medication is given when sexual activity is
desired and not once daily.
◉ A young adult male reports a dull pain in the right scrotum and
the provider notes a bluish color showing through the skin on the
affected side. Palpation reveals a bag of worms on the proximal
spermatic cord. What is an important next step in managing this
patient?
a. Anti-infective therapy with ceftriaxone or doxycycline
b. Consideration of underlying causes of this finding
c. Reassurance that this is benign and may resolve spontaneously
d. Referral to an emergency department for surgical consultation.
Answer: ANS: B
This patient has symptoms of varicocele. Because varicocele is rare
on the right side, the provider should look for underlying causes of
these findings. Anti infective therapy is indicated for epididymitis.
Varicocele requires surgical intervention or ablation to resolve.
Testicular torsion is an emergency.
◉ An adolescent male reports severe pain in one testicle. The
examiner notes edema and erythema of the scrotum on that side
with a swollen, tender spermatic cord and absence of the
cremasteric reflex. What is the most important intervention?
a. Doppler ultrasound to assess testicular blood flow
b. Immediate referral to the emergency department
, c. Prescribing anti-infective agents to treat the infection
d. Transillumination to assess for "blue dot" sign.
Answer: ANS: B
This patient has symptoms of testicular torsion, which is a surgical
emergency. An immediate referral is warranted. Doppler US and
transillumination are useful in establishing a diagnosis, but the
referral is the most important. Anti-infective agents are used if
epididymitis is suspected.
◉ A 3-month-old male infant has edema and painless swelling of the
scrotum. On physical examination, the provider can transilluminate
the scrotum. What will the provider recommend?
a. A Doppler ultrasound to evaluate the scrotal structures
b. A short course of empirical antibiotic therapy
c. Immediate referral to a genitourinary surgeon for repair
d. Observation and reassurance that spontaneous resolution may
occur.
Answer: ANS: D
This infant has symptoms of hydrocele; these disorders often resolve
spontaneously during infancy and do not require treatment unless
symptoms, such as pain, occur. It is not necessary to perform other
studies or refer to a surgeon. Antibiotics are not indicated, since this
is not infectious.
PACK 2026 KEY CONCEPTS AND REVISION
NOTES
◉ Which is true about hypoactive sexual desire in older men?
a. Hypoactive sexual desire in older men is related to sexual
aversion.
b. Hypoactive sexual desire is a conscious choice to avoid sexual
relations.
c. Men with hypoactive sexual desire may have normal excitement
and orgasm.
d. The most common type of sexual dysfunction is hypoactive sexual
desire..
Answer: ANS: C
Men with hypoactive sexual desire have diminished response in the
desire phase of the sexual response cycle but may still experience
normal excitement and orgasm. Sexual aversion and hypoactive
desire are not related. Many people with normal sexual desires
choose not to have sexual relations; hypoactive desire is a
physiological condition. Only 16% of men have hypoactive desire.
◉ A 50-year-old man reports having erectile dysfunction (ED). What
is an important response by the provider when developing a plan of
care for this patient?
,a. Considering testosterone hormone replacement therapy
b. Evaluating the patient for cardiovascular disease
c. Prescribing an oral phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor
d. Referring the patient for psychotherapy and counseling.
Answer: ANS: B
Men under age 60 years with ED are at higher risk for cardiovascular
disease, so this patient should be evaluated for this condition. Until
the underlying cause is found, prescribing medications or hormones
is not indicated. Psychotherapy and counseling are used when
psychogenic ED is present.
◉ The provider prescribes the oral phosphodiesterase type 5
inhibitor sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction (ED) in a 65-year-old
male patient. What will be included when teaching this patient
about taking this medication? (Select all that apply.)
a. The medication is best taken on an empty stomach.
b. The medication should be taken with a fatty food or meal.
c. The medication's effects may last for 24 to 36 hours.
d. This medication has a rapid onset and short duration of action.
e. This medication may be taken once daily..
Answer: ANS: A, D
Sildenafil has a rapid onset and short duration of action and should
be taken on an empty stomach. Fatty foods may delay or interfere
,with absorption. This medication is given when sexual activity is
desired and not once daily.
◉ A young adult male reports a dull pain in the right scrotum and
the provider notes a bluish color showing through the skin on the
affected side. Palpation reveals a bag of worms on the proximal
spermatic cord. What is an important next step in managing this
patient?
a. Anti-infective therapy with ceftriaxone or doxycycline
b. Consideration of underlying causes of this finding
c. Reassurance that this is benign and may resolve spontaneously
d. Referral to an emergency department for surgical consultation.
Answer: ANS: B
This patient has symptoms of varicocele. Because varicocele is rare
on the right side, the provider should look for underlying causes of
these findings. Anti infective therapy is indicated for epididymitis.
Varicocele requires surgical intervention or ablation to resolve.
Testicular torsion is an emergency.
◉ An adolescent male reports severe pain in one testicle. The
examiner notes edema and erythema of the scrotum on that side
with a swollen, tender spermatic cord and absence of the
cremasteric reflex. What is the most important intervention?
a. Doppler ultrasound to assess testicular blood flow
b. Immediate referral to the emergency department
, c. Prescribing anti-infective agents to treat the infection
d. Transillumination to assess for "blue dot" sign.
Answer: ANS: B
This patient has symptoms of testicular torsion, which is a surgical
emergency. An immediate referral is warranted. Doppler US and
transillumination are useful in establishing a diagnosis, but the
referral is the most important. Anti-infective agents are used if
epididymitis is suspected.
◉ A 3-month-old male infant has edema and painless swelling of the
scrotum. On physical examination, the provider can transilluminate
the scrotum. What will the provider recommend?
a. A Doppler ultrasound to evaluate the scrotal structures
b. A short course of empirical antibiotic therapy
c. Immediate referral to a genitourinary surgeon for repair
d. Observation and reassurance that spontaneous resolution may
occur.
Answer: ANS: D
This infant has symptoms of hydrocele; these disorders often resolve
spontaneously during infancy and do not require treatment unless
symptoms, such as pain, occur. It is not necessary to perform other
studies or refer to a surgeon. Antibiotics are not indicated, since this
is not infectious.
