NU 155 EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEE PASS |
GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING
1. A patient is prescribed 1000 mL of 0.9% Normal Saline to be infused over 8 hours. The drop
factor is 15 gtt/mL. At what rate in gtt/min should the nurse set the infusion?
A. 28 gtt/min
B. 31 gtt/min
C. 35 gtt/min
D. 42 gtt/min
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The formula is (Total Volume in mL × Drop Factor) / Time in
minutes. (1000 × 15) / (8 × 60) = = 31.25, which rounds to 31 gtt/min.
2. Which pharmacokinetic process is primarily affected in a patient with end-stage renal
disease?
A. Absorption
B. Excretion
C. Metabolism
D. Distribution
,Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Excretion is the process of removing a drug from the body,
primarily through the kidneys. Renal disease significantly impairs this process.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection using the Z-track technique.
What is the primary purpose of this method?
A. To prevent medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue
B. To reduce pain by numbing the skin
C. To ensure the medication enters a vein
D. To speed up the absorption rate of the drug
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: The Z-track method creates a zigzag path that seals the
medication in the muscle tissue and prevents leakage into sensitive subcutaneous layers.
4. A drug has a half-life of 4 hours. If a patient receives a dose of 400 mg at 08:00, how much
of the drug will remain in the patient’s system at 20:00?
A. 100 mg
B. 12.5 mg
C. 25 mg
D. 50 mg
Answer: D
, Conceptual Explanation: From 08:00 to 20:00 is 12 hours, which is three half-lives
(12/4=3). 400mg -> 200mg (1st) -> 100mg (2nd) -> 50mg (3rd).
5. A patient is experiencing toxicity from an overdose of Warfarin. Which of the following is
the specific antidote for this medication?
A. Protamine Sulfate
B. Naloxone
C. Vitamin K
D. Flumazenil
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Vitamin K is the antagonist for Warfarin. Protamine sulfate is for
Heparin, Naloxone for opioids, and Flumazenil for benzodiazepines.
6. What is the first action a nurse should take after realizing a medication error has occurred?
A. Notify the healthcare provider
B. Assess the patient’s condition
C. Complete an incident report
D. Inform the nurse manager
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Patient safety is the priority. The nurse must first assess the
patient for any adverse effects before notifying others or documenting the error.
ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEE PASS |
GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING
1. A patient is prescribed 1000 mL of 0.9% Normal Saline to be infused over 8 hours. The drop
factor is 15 gtt/mL. At what rate in gtt/min should the nurse set the infusion?
A. 28 gtt/min
B. 31 gtt/min
C. 35 gtt/min
D. 42 gtt/min
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The formula is (Total Volume in mL × Drop Factor) / Time in
minutes. (1000 × 15) / (8 × 60) = = 31.25, which rounds to 31 gtt/min.
2. Which pharmacokinetic process is primarily affected in a patient with end-stage renal
disease?
A. Absorption
B. Excretion
C. Metabolism
D. Distribution
,Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Excretion is the process of removing a drug from the body,
primarily through the kidneys. Renal disease significantly impairs this process.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection using the Z-track technique.
What is the primary purpose of this method?
A. To prevent medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue
B. To reduce pain by numbing the skin
C. To ensure the medication enters a vein
D. To speed up the absorption rate of the drug
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: The Z-track method creates a zigzag path that seals the
medication in the muscle tissue and prevents leakage into sensitive subcutaneous layers.
4. A drug has a half-life of 4 hours. If a patient receives a dose of 400 mg at 08:00, how much
of the drug will remain in the patient’s system at 20:00?
A. 100 mg
B. 12.5 mg
C. 25 mg
D. 50 mg
Answer: D
, Conceptual Explanation: From 08:00 to 20:00 is 12 hours, which is three half-lives
(12/4=3). 400mg -> 200mg (1st) -> 100mg (2nd) -> 50mg (3rd).
5. A patient is experiencing toxicity from an overdose of Warfarin. Which of the following is
the specific antidote for this medication?
A. Protamine Sulfate
B. Naloxone
C. Vitamin K
D. Flumazenil
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Vitamin K is the antagonist for Warfarin. Protamine sulfate is for
Heparin, Naloxone for opioids, and Flumazenil for benzodiazepines.
6. What is the first action a nurse should take after realizing a medication error has occurred?
A. Notify the healthcare provider
B. Assess the patient’s condition
C. Complete an incident report
D. Inform the nurse manager
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Patient safety is the priority. The nurse must first assess the
patient for any adverse effects before notifying others or documenting the error.
