NUR 210 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
(CHAMBERLAIN) 100% GUARANTEE
PASS
1. A patient presents with a pH of 7.25, PaCO2 of 50 mmHg, and HCO3 of 26 mEq/L. Which
acid-base imbalance is the patient experiencing?
A. Respiratory Alkalosis
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg
indicates the cause is respiratory, and since the HCO3 is within the normal range, it is
uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
2. When assessing a patient with right-sided heart failure, which clinical manifestation should
the nurse anticipate?
A. Jugular venous distension
B. Crackles in lungs
,C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Right-sided heart failure results in systemic congestion, leading
to jugular venous distension, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly. Crackles and dyspnea
are signs of left-sided heart failure.
3. Which assessment finding is most indicative of Cushing’s Triad in a patient with increased
intracranial pressure?
A. Tachycardia, hypertension, and tachypnea
B. Hypotension, tachycardia, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Bradycardia, widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations
D. Bradycardia, hypotension, and bradypnea
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Cushing’s Triad is a late sign of increased ICP consisting of
systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular (apneic)
respirations.
4. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes is admitted with a blood glucose of 600 mg/dL and positive
ketonuria. Which treatment is the priority?
A. Administration of intravenous insulin
, B. Intravenous fluid resuscitation with normal saline
C. Subcutaneous injection of Glucagon
D. Oral administration of fast-acting carbohydrates
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: In Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority is fluid resuscitation
to address dehydration and hypovolemia before or concurrent with starting insulin
therapy.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) on
mechanical ventilation. Which setting helps prevent alveolar collapse?
A. Fraction of Inspired Oxygen (FiO2)
B. Tidal Volume (VT)
C. Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)
D. Inspiratory Rate
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: PEEP provides pressure at the end of expiration to keep alveoli
open, improving oxygenation and preventing atelectasis in ARDS.
6. Which lab value should the nurse monitor most closely for a patient receiving a Heparin
infusion?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
(CHAMBERLAIN) 100% GUARANTEE
PASS
1. A patient presents with a pH of 7.25, PaCO2 of 50 mmHg, and HCO3 of 26 mEq/L. Which
acid-base imbalance is the patient experiencing?
A. Respiratory Alkalosis
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg
indicates the cause is respiratory, and since the HCO3 is within the normal range, it is
uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
2. When assessing a patient with right-sided heart failure, which clinical manifestation should
the nurse anticipate?
A. Jugular venous distension
B. Crackles in lungs
,C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Right-sided heart failure results in systemic congestion, leading
to jugular venous distension, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly. Crackles and dyspnea
are signs of left-sided heart failure.
3. Which assessment finding is most indicative of Cushing’s Triad in a patient with increased
intracranial pressure?
A. Tachycardia, hypertension, and tachypnea
B. Hypotension, tachycardia, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Bradycardia, widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations
D. Bradycardia, hypotension, and bradypnea
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Cushing’s Triad is a late sign of increased ICP consisting of
systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular (apneic)
respirations.
4. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes is admitted with a blood glucose of 600 mg/dL and positive
ketonuria. Which treatment is the priority?
A. Administration of intravenous insulin
, B. Intravenous fluid resuscitation with normal saline
C. Subcutaneous injection of Glucagon
D. Oral administration of fast-acting carbohydrates
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: In Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority is fluid resuscitation
to address dehydration and hypovolemia before or concurrent with starting insulin
therapy.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) on
mechanical ventilation. Which setting helps prevent alveolar collapse?
A. Fraction of Inspired Oxygen (FiO2)
B. Tidal Volume (VT)
C. Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)
D. Inspiratory Rate
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: PEEP provides pressure at the end of expiration to keep alveoli
open, improving oxygenation and preventing atelectasis in ARDS.
6. Which lab value should the nurse monitor most closely for a patient receiving a Heparin
infusion?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
