ALL COMSAE Exams – Complete Bundle of All Forms
with Official-Style Questions, Detailed Answers, and High-
Yield Explanations – Perfect for COMLEX Level 1 & 2
Prep”
Original COMLEX-Style Mixed Bundle — Batch 1 (100
Questions)
Section 1: Osteopathic Principles and Practice (OMM) —
Questions 1–10
1.
A 45-year-old male presents with low back pain. On physical exam, you note a somatic
dysfunction at T10-T12 with tissue texture changes and restricted motion. Which
osteopathic manipulative technique is most appropriate for acute muscle spasm?
A. HVLA
B. Muscle energy
C. Counterstrain
D. Myofascial release
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Counterstrain is a gentle, indirect technique used for acute somatic
dysfunction with muscle spasm. HVLA is contraindicated in acute spasm.
High-Yield Takeaway: Counterstrain = indirect, gentle, acute spasm.
2.
Which cranial nerve is associated with the occipito-atlantal (OA) joint dysfunction?
A. CN VII
,B. CN X
C. CN XII
D. CN V
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) exits through the hypoglossal canal near the
occipital condyles. OA dysfunction can affect CN XII.
High-Yield Takeaway: OA = CN XII (hypoglossal).
3.
A patient has a positive seated flexion test on the right. This indicates:
A. Right sacral torsion
B. Left sacral torsion
C. Right innominate rotation
D. Left innominate rotation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A positive seated flexion test on the right indicates a right sacral torsion
(sacrum rotates right on a left oblique axis).
High-Yield Takeaway: Seated flexion test = sacral torsion.
4.
Which of the following is a contraindication to HVLA?
A. Muscle spasm
B. Vertebral fracture
C. Mild osteoarthritis
D. Chronic somatic dysfunction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HVLA is absolutely contraindicated in vertebral fracture, severe osteoporosis,
,and metastatic disease.
High-Yield Takeaway: HVLA contraindications = fracture, osteoporosis, metastasis.
5.
The Chapman reflex for the small intestine is located:
A. Anteriorly at the 6th intercostal space
B. Posteriorly between T6-T8
C. Anteriorly at the 10th intercostal space
D. Posteriorly at L1-L2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chapman reflexes for the small intestine are located posteriorly between T6
and T8, and anteriorly at the 10th intercostal space.
High-Yield Takeaway: Small intestine Chapman = T6-T8 posterior.
6.
A patient with pneumonia would most likely have a Chapman reflex at which level?
A. T1-T2
B. T3-T4
C. T5-T7
D. T10-T12
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lung Chapman reflexes are located anteriorly at the 2nd intercostal space
and posteriorly at T3-T4.
High-Yield Takeaway: Lung Chapman = T3-T4 posterior.
7.
, Which of the following describes a Fryette principle?
A. Type I mechanics: sidebending and rotation in opposite directions
B. Type II mechanics: sidebending and rotation in the same direction
C. Type I mechanics occur at the apex of a curve
D. Type II mechanics are named for the sidebending
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fryette Type I: neutral, sidebending and rotation opposite. Type II: flexed or
extended, sidebending and rotation same.
High-Yield Takeaway: Type I = opposite; Type II = same.
8.
A 30-year-old female presents with headache and neck pain. You find C2 rotated right.
Which motion is restricted?
A. Right rotation
B. Left rotation
C. Flexion
D. Extension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If C2 is rotated right, left rotation is restricted because the vertebra is stuck in
right rotation.
High-Yield Takeaway: Restricted motion is opposite the direction of rotation.
9.
Which of the following is the primary respiratory mechanism (PRM) component?
A. Motility of the CNS
B. Mobility of the sacrum
C. Motion of the cranial bones
D. All of the above
with Official-Style Questions, Detailed Answers, and High-
Yield Explanations – Perfect for COMLEX Level 1 & 2
Prep”
Original COMLEX-Style Mixed Bundle — Batch 1 (100
Questions)
Section 1: Osteopathic Principles and Practice (OMM) —
Questions 1–10
1.
A 45-year-old male presents with low back pain. On physical exam, you note a somatic
dysfunction at T10-T12 with tissue texture changes and restricted motion. Which
osteopathic manipulative technique is most appropriate for acute muscle spasm?
A. HVLA
B. Muscle energy
C. Counterstrain
D. Myofascial release
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Counterstrain is a gentle, indirect technique used for acute somatic
dysfunction with muscle spasm. HVLA is contraindicated in acute spasm.
High-Yield Takeaway: Counterstrain = indirect, gentle, acute spasm.
2.
Which cranial nerve is associated with the occipito-atlantal (OA) joint dysfunction?
A. CN VII
,B. CN X
C. CN XII
D. CN V
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) exits through the hypoglossal canal near the
occipital condyles. OA dysfunction can affect CN XII.
High-Yield Takeaway: OA = CN XII (hypoglossal).
3.
A patient has a positive seated flexion test on the right. This indicates:
A. Right sacral torsion
B. Left sacral torsion
C. Right innominate rotation
D. Left innominate rotation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A positive seated flexion test on the right indicates a right sacral torsion
(sacrum rotates right on a left oblique axis).
High-Yield Takeaway: Seated flexion test = sacral torsion.
4.
Which of the following is a contraindication to HVLA?
A. Muscle spasm
B. Vertebral fracture
C. Mild osteoarthritis
D. Chronic somatic dysfunction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HVLA is absolutely contraindicated in vertebral fracture, severe osteoporosis,
,and metastatic disease.
High-Yield Takeaway: HVLA contraindications = fracture, osteoporosis, metastasis.
5.
The Chapman reflex for the small intestine is located:
A. Anteriorly at the 6th intercostal space
B. Posteriorly between T6-T8
C. Anteriorly at the 10th intercostal space
D. Posteriorly at L1-L2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chapman reflexes for the small intestine are located posteriorly between T6
and T8, and anteriorly at the 10th intercostal space.
High-Yield Takeaway: Small intestine Chapman = T6-T8 posterior.
6.
A patient with pneumonia would most likely have a Chapman reflex at which level?
A. T1-T2
B. T3-T4
C. T5-T7
D. T10-T12
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lung Chapman reflexes are located anteriorly at the 2nd intercostal space
and posteriorly at T3-T4.
High-Yield Takeaway: Lung Chapman = T3-T4 posterior.
7.
, Which of the following describes a Fryette principle?
A. Type I mechanics: sidebending and rotation in opposite directions
B. Type II mechanics: sidebending and rotation in the same direction
C. Type I mechanics occur at the apex of a curve
D. Type II mechanics are named for the sidebending
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fryette Type I: neutral, sidebending and rotation opposite. Type II: flexed or
extended, sidebending and rotation same.
High-Yield Takeaway: Type I = opposite; Type II = same.
8.
A 30-year-old female presents with headache and neck pain. You find C2 rotated right.
Which motion is restricted?
A. Right rotation
B. Left rotation
C. Flexion
D. Extension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If C2 is rotated right, left rotation is restricted because the vertebra is stuck in
right rotation.
High-Yield Takeaway: Restricted motion is opposite the direction of rotation.
9.
Which of the following is the primary respiratory mechanism (PRM) component?
A. Motility of the CNS
B. Mobility of the sacrum
C. Motion of the cranial bones
D. All of the above
