DM G+1 Exam Prep | 157 Practice Questions & Answers +
Comprehensive Study Review Actual Exam 2026/2027 |
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Foundations of Diabetes Pathophysiology and Diagnosis
Q1: Primary pathophysiological defect in type 2 diabetes?
A. Autoimmune beta-cell destruction
B. Insulin resistance and relative deficiency [CORRECT]
C. Absolute lack of insulin
D. Glucagon receptor mutation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because type 2 diabetes is driven by peripheral insulin
resistance combined with progressive beta-cell decline.
Q2: Primary mechanism of type 1 diabetes?
A. Severe insulin resistance
B. Autoimmune beta-cell destruction [CORRECT]
C. Hepatic glucose overproduction
D. Incretin deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because type 1 diabetes results from T-cell-mediated
autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
Q3: Fasting plasma glucose level diagnostic for diabetes?
A. 100 mg/dL
B. 115 mg/dL
C. 126 mg/dL [CORRECT]
D. 140 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This aligns with diagnostic criteria requiring a fasting plasma glucose of 126
mg/dL or higher on two separate occasions.
Q4: HbA1c threshold for diagnosing diabetes?
A. 5.7%
B. 6.0%
C. 6.5% [CORRECT]
D. 7.0%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C, as an HbA1c of 6.5% or higher, confirmed by a repeat test,
meets the diagnostic threshold.
,Q5: 2-hour plasma glucose during OGTT indicating diabetes?
A. 140 mg/dL
B. 160 mg/dL
C. 180 mg/dL
D. 200 mg/dL [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This choice is correct because a 2-hour value of 200 mg/dL or higher during a 75g
oral glucose tolerance test confirms diabetes.
Q6: Random plasma glucose diagnostic for diabetes with symptoms?
A. 140 mg/dL
B. 160 mg/dL
C. 180 mg/dL
D. 200 mg/dL [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This matches the principle that a random glucose ≥200 mg/dL with classic
hyperglycemia symptoms is diagnostic without repeat testing.
Q7: HbA1c range defining prediabetes?
A. 5.0–5.6%
B. 5.7–6.4% [CORRECT]
C. 6.5–7.0%
D. 7.1–7.9%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B, which represents the established prediabetes range
indicating increased risk for progression to type 2 diabetes.
Q8: Fasting glucose range for impaired fasting glucose (prediabetes)?
A. 80–99 mg/dL
B. 100–125 mg/dL [CORRECT]
C. 126–140 mg/dL
D. 141–150 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because impaired fasting glucose is strictly defined as a
fasting level between 100 and 125 mg/dL.
Q9: 2-hour OGTT range for impaired glucose tolerance?
A. 100–125 mg/dL
B. 126–139 mg/dL
C. 140–199 mg/dL [CORRECT]
D. 200–220 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This aligns with criteria defining impaired glucose tolerance as a 2-hour post-load
glucose between 140 and 199 mg/dL.
Q10: Typical age of onset for LADA?
,A. Infancy
B. Childhood
C. Adulthood [CORRECT]
D. Elderly only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C because Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA)
presents in adulthood, often initially misdiagnosed as type 2.
Q11: Key autoantibody in type 1 diabetes?
A. Anti-CCP
B. GAD65 [CORRECT]
C. ANA
D. Rheumatoid factor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase (GAD65)
autoantibodies are highly specific markers for autoimmune beta-cell destruction.
Q12: Inheritance pattern of MODY?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked
C. Autosomal dominant [CORRECT]
D. Mitochondrial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This matches the principle that Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
Q13: Primary hormonal defect in DKA?
A. Excess insulin
B. Absolute insulin deficiency [CORRECT]
C. Glucagon deficiency
D. Somatostatin excess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B, as absolute insulin deficiency combined with
counterregulatory hormone excess drives ketogenesis in DKA.
Q14: Role of amylin in glucose regulation?
A. Stimulates hepatic glucose output
B. Slows gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon [CORRECT]
C. Increases insulin sensitivity
D. Stimulates beta-cell proliferation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because amylin is co-secreted with insulin to slow gastric
emptying and suppress postprandial glucagon.
Q15: Primary source of endogenous glucose production?
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Adipose tissue
, C. Liver [CORRECT]
D. Kidneys
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C, as the liver is the primary organ responsible for
glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis during fasting.
Q16: Effect of incretins on insulin secretion?
A. Inhibits it
B. Enhances it glucose-dependently [CORRECT]
C. Has no effect
D. Causes constant secretion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the incretin effect, where GLP-1 and GIP enhance insulin
secretion only when glucose levels are elevated.
Q17: Primary site of insulin-mediated glucose disposal?
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Skeletal muscle [CORRECT]
D. Red blood cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because skeletal muscle accounts for the majority of insulin-
stimulated glucose uptake in the postprandial state.
Q18: Condition characterized by severe insulin resistance and acanthosis nigricans?
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type A insulin resistance syndrome [CORRECT]
C. LADA
D. MODY
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B, as Type A insulin resistance syndrome presents with severe
hyperinsulinemia and dermatological findings like acanthosis nigricans.
Q19: Pathophysiology of gestational diabetes?
A. Autoimmune destruction
B. Placental hormones causing insulin resistance [CORRECT]
C. Genetic beta-cell defect
D. Viral infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that human placental lactogen and other hormones
induce physiological insulin resistance during the second trimester.
Q20: Why does HbA1c reflect a 2-3 month average?
A. Liver storage duration
B. Red blood cell lifespan [CORRECT]
C. Kidney filtration rate
D. Fat cell turnover
Comprehensive Study Review Actual Exam 2026/2027 |
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Foundations of Diabetes Pathophysiology and Diagnosis
Q1: Primary pathophysiological defect in type 2 diabetes?
A. Autoimmune beta-cell destruction
B. Insulin resistance and relative deficiency [CORRECT]
C. Absolute lack of insulin
D. Glucagon receptor mutation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because type 2 diabetes is driven by peripheral insulin
resistance combined with progressive beta-cell decline.
Q2: Primary mechanism of type 1 diabetes?
A. Severe insulin resistance
B. Autoimmune beta-cell destruction [CORRECT]
C. Hepatic glucose overproduction
D. Incretin deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because type 1 diabetes results from T-cell-mediated
autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
Q3: Fasting plasma glucose level diagnostic for diabetes?
A. 100 mg/dL
B. 115 mg/dL
C. 126 mg/dL [CORRECT]
D. 140 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This aligns with diagnostic criteria requiring a fasting plasma glucose of 126
mg/dL or higher on two separate occasions.
Q4: HbA1c threshold for diagnosing diabetes?
A. 5.7%
B. 6.0%
C. 6.5% [CORRECT]
D. 7.0%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C, as an HbA1c of 6.5% or higher, confirmed by a repeat test,
meets the diagnostic threshold.
,Q5: 2-hour plasma glucose during OGTT indicating diabetes?
A. 140 mg/dL
B. 160 mg/dL
C. 180 mg/dL
D. 200 mg/dL [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This choice is correct because a 2-hour value of 200 mg/dL or higher during a 75g
oral glucose tolerance test confirms diabetes.
Q6: Random plasma glucose diagnostic for diabetes with symptoms?
A. 140 mg/dL
B. 160 mg/dL
C. 180 mg/dL
D. 200 mg/dL [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This matches the principle that a random glucose ≥200 mg/dL with classic
hyperglycemia symptoms is diagnostic without repeat testing.
Q7: HbA1c range defining prediabetes?
A. 5.0–5.6%
B. 5.7–6.4% [CORRECT]
C. 6.5–7.0%
D. 7.1–7.9%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B, which represents the established prediabetes range
indicating increased risk for progression to type 2 diabetes.
Q8: Fasting glucose range for impaired fasting glucose (prediabetes)?
A. 80–99 mg/dL
B. 100–125 mg/dL [CORRECT]
C. 126–140 mg/dL
D. 141–150 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because impaired fasting glucose is strictly defined as a
fasting level between 100 and 125 mg/dL.
Q9: 2-hour OGTT range for impaired glucose tolerance?
A. 100–125 mg/dL
B. 126–139 mg/dL
C. 140–199 mg/dL [CORRECT]
D. 200–220 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This aligns with criteria defining impaired glucose tolerance as a 2-hour post-load
glucose between 140 and 199 mg/dL.
Q10: Typical age of onset for LADA?
,A. Infancy
B. Childhood
C. Adulthood [CORRECT]
D. Elderly only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C because Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA)
presents in adulthood, often initially misdiagnosed as type 2.
Q11: Key autoantibody in type 1 diabetes?
A. Anti-CCP
B. GAD65 [CORRECT]
C. ANA
D. Rheumatoid factor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase (GAD65)
autoantibodies are highly specific markers for autoimmune beta-cell destruction.
Q12: Inheritance pattern of MODY?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked
C. Autosomal dominant [CORRECT]
D. Mitochondrial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This matches the principle that Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
Q13: Primary hormonal defect in DKA?
A. Excess insulin
B. Absolute insulin deficiency [CORRECT]
C. Glucagon deficiency
D. Somatostatin excess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B, as absolute insulin deficiency combined with
counterregulatory hormone excess drives ketogenesis in DKA.
Q14: Role of amylin in glucose regulation?
A. Stimulates hepatic glucose output
B. Slows gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon [CORRECT]
C. Increases insulin sensitivity
D. Stimulates beta-cell proliferation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because amylin is co-secreted with insulin to slow gastric
emptying and suppress postprandial glucagon.
Q15: Primary source of endogenous glucose production?
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Adipose tissue
, C. Liver [CORRECT]
D. Kidneys
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C, as the liver is the primary organ responsible for
glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis during fasting.
Q16: Effect of incretins on insulin secretion?
A. Inhibits it
B. Enhances it glucose-dependently [CORRECT]
C. Has no effect
D. Causes constant secretion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the incretin effect, where GLP-1 and GIP enhance insulin
secretion only when glucose levels are elevated.
Q17: Primary site of insulin-mediated glucose disposal?
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Skeletal muscle [CORRECT]
D. Red blood cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because skeletal muscle accounts for the majority of insulin-
stimulated glucose uptake in the postprandial state.
Q18: Condition characterized by severe insulin resistance and acanthosis nigricans?
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type A insulin resistance syndrome [CORRECT]
C. LADA
D. MODY
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B, as Type A insulin resistance syndrome presents with severe
hyperinsulinemia and dermatological findings like acanthosis nigricans.
Q19: Pathophysiology of gestational diabetes?
A. Autoimmune destruction
B. Placental hormones causing insulin resistance [CORRECT]
C. Genetic beta-cell defect
D. Viral infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that human placental lactogen and other hormones
induce physiological insulin resistance during the second trimester.
Q20: Why does HbA1c reflect a 2-3 month average?
A. Liver storage duration
B. Red blood cell lifespan [CORRECT]
C. Kidney filtration rate
D. Fat cell turnover
