WCU PHYS 261 Midterm Exam Practice Test – West Coast University
Physics for Allied Health – 150 Questions & Detailed Verified Answers
(Latest 2026 Update)
SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1–50
1. A patient develops severe diarrhea and loses large amounts of fluid. Which physiological
principle is most directly threatened?
A. Genetic inheritance
B. Cell specialization
C. Homeostasis
D. Protein synthesis
Rationale: Homeostasis involves maintaining relatively stable internal conditions despite
external or internal disturbances.
2. Which statement best describes negative feedback?
A. The response amplifies the original stimulus
B. The response permanently eliminates the stimulus
C. The response reduces the deviation from a regulated variable's set point
D. The response always produces an identical physiological value
Rationale: Negative feedback opposes an initial change and tends to stabilize physiological
variables.
3. During labor, uterine contractions stimulate oxytocin release, which increases
contractions and causes additional oxytocin release. This is an example of:
A. Negative feedback
B. Feedforward inhibition
C. Positive feedback
D. Osmotic regulation
,Rationale: Positive feedback amplifies the initial stimulus rather than opposing it.
4. Which example best represents a regulated variable?
A. The sequence of DNA bases in a chromosome
B. The identity of a person's blood type
C. Core body temperature
D. The number of bones in the adult skeleton
Rationale: Core temperature is actively regulated around a physiological range.
5. A researcher proposes that a new medication lowers blood pressure because it decreases
sympathetic activity. What is the proposed explanation called?
A. Theory
B. Observation
C. Hypothesis
D. Conclusion
Rationale: A hypothesis is a testable proposed explanation for an observation.
6. Which statement best defines physiology?
A. The study of abnormal tissue structure
B. The study of disease-causing microorganisms
C. The study of the normal functions of living organisms and their component parts
D. The study of body structures visible only under a microscope
Rationale: Physiology examines how living organisms and their cells, tissues, organs, and
systems function under normal conditions.
7. A student is asked to arrange the levels of biological organization from smallest to
largest. Which sequence is correct?
A. Cell → molecule → tissue → organ → organ system → organism
B. Molecule → cell → tissue → organ → organ system → organism
C. Tissue → molecule → cell → organ → organism → organ system
D. Molecule → tissue → cell → organ system → organ → organism
Rationale: Molecules form cells, cells form tissues, tissues form organs, organs form organ
systems, and organ systems collectively form an organism.
8. Which term describes the study of normal body function in contrast to disease
processes?
,A. Pathology
B. Histology
C. Anatomy
D. Physiology
Rationale: Physiology focuses on normal function, whereas pathology and pathophysiology
examine disease-related abnormalities.
9. A researcher asks why the kidneys produce concentrated urine during dehydration.
Which approach primarily asks what mechanism produces the response?
A. Teleological approach
B. Mechanistic approach
C. Historical approach
D. Statistical approach
Rationale: A mechanistic explanation identifies the physical and chemical processes responsible
for an observed physiological response.
10. The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:
A. Neutrons
B. Electrons
C. Protons plus neutrons
D. Protons
Rationale: Atomic number equals the number of protons in the nucleus.
11. An atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is its approximate atomic mass
number?
A. 1
B. 11
C. 12
D. 23
Rationale: Mass number is approximately the sum of protons and neutrons: 11 + 12 = 23.
12. An atom loses one electron. What happens to its electrical charge?
A. It becomes more negative
B. It becomes neutral
C. It becomes more positive
D. Its atomic number decreases
Rationale: Electrons carry negative charge; losing one produces a net positive charge.
, 13. Which bond involves the sharing of electrons between atoms?
A. Ionic bond
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Covalent bond
D. Peptide interaction
Rationale: Covalent bonds form when atoms share electrons.
14. Sodium chloride forms when sodium transfers an electron to chlorine. The resulting
attraction is primarily a(n):
A. Covalent bond
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Peptide bond
Rationale: Electron transfer creates oppositely charged ions that attract electrostatically.
15. Which statement about hydrogen bonds is correct?
A. They are stronger than most covalent bonds
B. They require complete transfer of electrons
C. They are relatively weak attractions important in water and biological molecules
D. They occur only between identical atoms
Rationale: Hydrogen bonds are weak individually but collectively important for biological
structure and water properties.
16. A patient has a blood pH of 7.30. How should this value be classified?
A. Alkalotic
B. Neutral
C. Acidic
D. Isotonic
Rationale: Normal arterial blood pH is approximately 7.35–7.45, so 7.30 represents acidemia.
17. Which molecule is the principal immediate energy currency of the cell?
A. DNA
B. Glucose
C. ATP
D. Cholesterol
Rationale: ATP provides readily usable chemical energy for cellular processes.
Physics for Allied Health – 150 Questions & Detailed Verified Answers
(Latest 2026 Update)
SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1–50
1. A patient develops severe diarrhea and loses large amounts of fluid. Which physiological
principle is most directly threatened?
A. Genetic inheritance
B. Cell specialization
C. Homeostasis
D. Protein synthesis
Rationale: Homeostasis involves maintaining relatively stable internal conditions despite
external or internal disturbances.
2. Which statement best describes negative feedback?
A. The response amplifies the original stimulus
B. The response permanently eliminates the stimulus
C. The response reduces the deviation from a regulated variable's set point
D. The response always produces an identical physiological value
Rationale: Negative feedback opposes an initial change and tends to stabilize physiological
variables.
3. During labor, uterine contractions stimulate oxytocin release, which increases
contractions and causes additional oxytocin release. This is an example of:
A. Negative feedback
B. Feedforward inhibition
C. Positive feedback
D. Osmotic regulation
,Rationale: Positive feedback amplifies the initial stimulus rather than opposing it.
4. Which example best represents a regulated variable?
A. The sequence of DNA bases in a chromosome
B. The identity of a person's blood type
C. Core body temperature
D. The number of bones in the adult skeleton
Rationale: Core temperature is actively regulated around a physiological range.
5. A researcher proposes that a new medication lowers blood pressure because it decreases
sympathetic activity. What is the proposed explanation called?
A. Theory
B. Observation
C. Hypothesis
D. Conclusion
Rationale: A hypothesis is a testable proposed explanation for an observation.
6. Which statement best defines physiology?
A. The study of abnormal tissue structure
B. The study of disease-causing microorganisms
C. The study of the normal functions of living organisms and their component parts
D. The study of body structures visible only under a microscope
Rationale: Physiology examines how living organisms and their cells, tissues, organs, and
systems function under normal conditions.
7. A student is asked to arrange the levels of biological organization from smallest to
largest. Which sequence is correct?
A. Cell → molecule → tissue → organ → organ system → organism
B. Molecule → cell → tissue → organ → organ system → organism
C. Tissue → molecule → cell → organ → organism → organ system
D. Molecule → tissue → cell → organ system → organ → organism
Rationale: Molecules form cells, cells form tissues, tissues form organs, organs form organ
systems, and organ systems collectively form an organism.
8. Which term describes the study of normal body function in contrast to disease
processes?
,A. Pathology
B. Histology
C. Anatomy
D. Physiology
Rationale: Physiology focuses on normal function, whereas pathology and pathophysiology
examine disease-related abnormalities.
9. A researcher asks why the kidneys produce concentrated urine during dehydration.
Which approach primarily asks what mechanism produces the response?
A. Teleological approach
B. Mechanistic approach
C. Historical approach
D. Statistical approach
Rationale: A mechanistic explanation identifies the physical and chemical processes responsible
for an observed physiological response.
10. The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:
A. Neutrons
B. Electrons
C. Protons plus neutrons
D. Protons
Rationale: Atomic number equals the number of protons in the nucleus.
11. An atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is its approximate atomic mass
number?
A. 1
B. 11
C. 12
D. 23
Rationale: Mass number is approximately the sum of protons and neutrons: 11 + 12 = 23.
12. An atom loses one electron. What happens to its electrical charge?
A. It becomes more negative
B. It becomes neutral
C. It becomes more positive
D. Its atomic number decreases
Rationale: Electrons carry negative charge; losing one produces a net positive charge.
, 13. Which bond involves the sharing of electrons between atoms?
A. Ionic bond
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Covalent bond
D. Peptide interaction
Rationale: Covalent bonds form when atoms share electrons.
14. Sodium chloride forms when sodium transfers an electron to chlorine. The resulting
attraction is primarily a(n):
A. Covalent bond
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Peptide bond
Rationale: Electron transfer creates oppositely charged ions that attract electrostatically.
15. Which statement about hydrogen bonds is correct?
A. They are stronger than most covalent bonds
B. They require complete transfer of electrons
C. They are relatively weak attractions important in water and biological molecules
D. They occur only between identical atoms
Rationale: Hydrogen bonds are weak individually but collectively important for biological
structure and water properties.
16. A patient has a blood pH of 7.30. How should this value be classified?
A. Alkalotic
B. Neutral
C. Acidic
D. Isotonic
Rationale: Normal arterial blood pH is approximately 7.35–7.45, so 7.30 represents acidemia.
17. Which molecule is the principal immediate energy currency of the cell?
A. DNA
B. Glucose
C. ATP
D. Cholesterol
Rationale: ATP provides readily usable chemical energy for cellular processes.
