NUR 6001 EXAM WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS|| ALREADY GRADED A+||
LATEST UPDATE 2026
1. Q: What are the two primary components of a comprehensive health
assessment?
A: A thorough health history (subjective data) and a complete physical
examination (objective data).
2. Q: Which section of the health history focuses on the patient's own words
about their current concern?
A: The chief complaint (CC) and history of present illness (HPI).
3. Q: What is the purpose of the review of systems (ROS)?
A: To systematically screen for symptoms in all body systems that the patient
may not have mentioned spontaneously.
4. Q: What are the three key components of the general survey during a
physical exam?
A: Physical appearance, body structure, and mobility/behavior.
5. Q: What is the correct sequence for abdominal examination, and why?
A: Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation. Auscultation comes before
percussion and palpation to avoid altering bowel sounds.
6. Q: What is the "bell" of a stethoscope best used for?
A: Low-pitched sounds, such as heart murmurs and bruits.
7. Q: What is the "diaphragm" of a stethoscope best used for?
A: High-pitched sounds, such as normal heart sounds (S1, S2), breath sounds,
and bowel sounds.
8. Q: How do you assess for JVD (jugular venous distention)?
A: With the patient supine at a 30–45° angle, measure the vertical height of the
pulsation above the sternal angle.
,9. Q: What is the normal range for blood pressure in adults?
A: Systolic < 120 mm Hg and diastolic < 80 mm Hg (per ACC/AHA
guidelines).
10. Q: What is the difference between a systolic murmur and a diastolic
murmur?
A: Systolic murmurs occur between S1 and S2; diastolic murmurs occur
between S2 and S1.
11. Q: What are the normal findings on palpation of the thyroid gland?
A: Smooth, firm, non-tender, and symmetrical, with no nodules.
12. Q: What is the significance of a positive Murphy's sign?
A: It suggests cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder).
13. Q: What is the correct technique for auscultating lung sounds?
A: Use the diaphragm, listen from apex to base, comparing side to side, and
have the patient breathe deeply through the mouth.
14. Q: What are crackles (rales) and what do they indicate?
A: Discontinuous, popping sounds often due to fluid in the alveoli, indicating
conditions like pneumonia or heart failure.
15. Q: What is the purpose of the mini-mental state examination (MMSE)?
A: To screen for cognitive impairment, including orientation, memory,
attention, and language.
16. Q: What is the Timed Up and Go (TUG) test used for?
A: To assess mobility, balance, and fall risk in older adults.
17. Q: How do you assess for peripheral edema?
A: Press firmly with your thumb over a bony prominence (e.g., tibia) for 5
seconds; grade pitting on a 1+ to 4+ scale.
18. Q: What is the difference between a screening test and a diagnostic
test?
A: Screening tests identify potential disease in asymptomatic individuals;
diagnostic tests confirm or rule out a specific condition.
19. Q: What are the components of a mental status exam?
A: Appearance, behavior, cognition, and thought processes (ABCT).
20. Q: What is the normal range for fasting blood glucose?
A: 70–99 mg/dL.
, 21. Q: What is the purpose of the Braden Scale?
A: To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers.
22. Q: What is the correct technique for otoscopic examination of the ear in
an adult?
A: Pull the pinna up and back to straighten the ear canal.
23. Q: What is the significance of a positive Romberg test?
A: It indicates a problem with proprioception or vestibular function.
24. Q: What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
A: A sign is objective (observable by the examiner); a symptom is subjective
(reported by the patient).
25. Q: What is the purpose of the CAGE questionnaire?
A: To screen for alcohol use disorder (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-
opener).
26. Q: What is the correct technique for assessing pupillary response?
A: Shine a light into each eye and observe for constriction (direct and
consensual); assess accommodation by moving a finger toward the nose.
27. Q: What is the normal range for respiratory rate in adults?
A: 12–20 breaths per minute.
28. Q: What is the significance of a positive Homans' sign?
A: It may indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), though it is not a reliable sign.
29. Q: What are the components of the APGAR score?
A: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration (used for newborns).
30. Q: What is the purpose of the PHQ-9?
A: To screen for and measure the severity of depression.
31. Q: What is the correct technique for assessing for costovertebral angle
(CVA) tenderness?
A: Percuss or palpate the angle formed by the 12th rib and the vertebral column;
tenderness suggests kidney inflammation.
32. Q: What is the normal range for adult heart rate?
A: 60–100 beats per minute.
33. Q: What is the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary
prevention?
A: Primary prevents disease (vaccines), secondary detects early disease
(screening), tertiary manages existing disease (rehabilitation).
AND ANSWERS|| ALREADY GRADED A+||
LATEST UPDATE 2026
1. Q: What are the two primary components of a comprehensive health
assessment?
A: A thorough health history (subjective data) and a complete physical
examination (objective data).
2. Q: Which section of the health history focuses on the patient's own words
about their current concern?
A: The chief complaint (CC) and history of present illness (HPI).
3. Q: What is the purpose of the review of systems (ROS)?
A: To systematically screen for symptoms in all body systems that the patient
may not have mentioned spontaneously.
4. Q: What are the three key components of the general survey during a
physical exam?
A: Physical appearance, body structure, and mobility/behavior.
5. Q: What is the correct sequence for abdominal examination, and why?
A: Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation. Auscultation comes before
percussion and palpation to avoid altering bowel sounds.
6. Q: What is the "bell" of a stethoscope best used for?
A: Low-pitched sounds, such as heart murmurs and bruits.
7. Q: What is the "diaphragm" of a stethoscope best used for?
A: High-pitched sounds, such as normal heart sounds (S1, S2), breath sounds,
and bowel sounds.
8. Q: How do you assess for JVD (jugular venous distention)?
A: With the patient supine at a 30–45° angle, measure the vertical height of the
pulsation above the sternal angle.
,9. Q: What is the normal range for blood pressure in adults?
A: Systolic < 120 mm Hg and diastolic < 80 mm Hg (per ACC/AHA
guidelines).
10. Q: What is the difference between a systolic murmur and a diastolic
murmur?
A: Systolic murmurs occur between S1 and S2; diastolic murmurs occur
between S2 and S1.
11. Q: What are the normal findings on palpation of the thyroid gland?
A: Smooth, firm, non-tender, and symmetrical, with no nodules.
12. Q: What is the significance of a positive Murphy's sign?
A: It suggests cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder).
13. Q: What is the correct technique for auscultating lung sounds?
A: Use the diaphragm, listen from apex to base, comparing side to side, and
have the patient breathe deeply through the mouth.
14. Q: What are crackles (rales) and what do they indicate?
A: Discontinuous, popping sounds often due to fluid in the alveoli, indicating
conditions like pneumonia or heart failure.
15. Q: What is the purpose of the mini-mental state examination (MMSE)?
A: To screen for cognitive impairment, including orientation, memory,
attention, and language.
16. Q: What is the Timed Up and Go (TUG) test used for?
A: To assess mobility, balance, and fall risk in older adults.
17. Q: How do you assess for peripheral edema?
A: Press firmly with your thumb over a bony prominence (e.g., tibia) for 5
seconds; grade pitting on a 1+ to 4+ scale.
18. Q: What is the difference between a screening test and a diagnostic
test?
A: Screening tests identify potential disease in asymptomatic individuals;
diagnostic tests confirm or rule out a specific condition.
19. Q: What are the components of a mental status exam?
A: Appearance, behavior, cognition, and thought processes (ABCT).
20. Q: What is the normal range for fasting blood glucose?
A: 70–99 mg/dL.
, 21. Q: What is the purpose of the Braden Scale?
A: To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers.
22. Q: What is the correct technique for otoscopic examination of the ear in
an adult?
A: Pull the pinna up and back to straighten the ear canal.
23. Q: What is the significance of a positive Romberg test?
A: It indicates a problem with proprioception or vestibular function.
24. Q: What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
A: A sign is objective (observable by the examiner); a symptom is subjective
(reported by the patient).
25. Q: What is the purpose of the CAGE questionnaire?
A: To screen for alcohol use disorder (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-
opener).
26. Q: What is the correct technique for assessing pupillary response?
A: Shine a light into each eye and observe for constriction (direct and
consensual); assess accommodation by moving a finger toward the nose.
27. Q: What is the normal range for respiratory rate in adults?
A: 12–20 breaths per minute.
28. Q: What is the significance of a positive Homans' sign?
A: It may indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), though it is not a reliable sign.
29. Q: What are the components of the APGAR score?
A: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration (used for newborns).
30. Q: What is the purpose of the PHQ-9?
A: To screen for and measure the severity of depression.
31. Q: What is the correct technique for assessing for costovertebral angle
(CVA) tenderness?
A: Percuss or palpate the angle formed by the 12th rib and the vertebral column;
tenderness suggests kidney inflammation.
32. Q: What is the normal range for adult heart rate?
A: 60–100 beats per minute.
33. Q: What is the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary
prevention?
A: Primary prevents disease (vaccines), secondary detects early disease
(screening), tertiary manages existing disease (rehabilitation).
