NURS 629 EXAM 2 MVU QUESTIONS AND EXPERT
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | ALREADY GRADED
A+ | GUARANTEED PASS | PEDIATRIC/FAMILY HEALTH CARE
LATEST EXAM (GRADED A+)
SECTION 1: GROWTH & DEVELOPMENT – 45 QUESTIONS
1. Susie is 18 months old and she doesn't seem the least bit interested in being
toilet trained. What do you tell her mother?
A) She can use reinforcement conditioning to discipline Susie whenever she soils
her diapers and rewards her when she stays dry.
B) She should have Susie spend time around other toddlers who are toilet trained
so she can learn from them.
C) Susie's behavior is typical, because most children are not ready until age 2.
D) The majority of children Susie's age have started to show readiness related to
toilet training by this age.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Toilet training readiness typically occurs between 18 and 24 months,
with most children not fully ready until approximately age 2. At 18 months,
Susie's lack of interest is developmentally appropriate. Option A is incorrect
because punishment-based approaches are not recommended for toilet training
and can create negative associations. Option B is incorrect because peer modeling
alone is insufficient for toilet training readiness. Option D is incorrect because
most 18-month-olds have not yet developed the physical and cognitive readiness
for toilet training. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends waiting until
the child shows signs of readiness, including staying dry for at least 2 hours,
showing interest in the toilet, and being able to follow simple instructions.
2. Weight changes in the first year of life:
A) Weight increases 3-4 lbs, up to 10 lbs in the first year
B) Weight increases 6-8 lbs, up to 20 lbs in the first year
C) Weight increases 10-12 lbs, up to 30 lbs in the first year
D) Weight remains stable throughout the first year
Correct Answer: B
1
,Rationale: During the first year of life, infants typically gain 6-8 lbs (3-4 kg),
reaching approximately 20 lbs (9 kg) by 12 months of age. Birth weight doubles by
4-5 months and triples by 12 months. Option A underestimates normal growth.
Option C overestimates typical weight gain. Option D is incorrect because infants
experience rapid growth during the first year. This rapid growth reflects the
intense nutritional demands of infancy and is a key indicator of adequate feeding
and overall health.
3. Which tooth is the first to erupt in an infant?
A) A lower central incisor
B) A lower lateral incisor
C) Upper lateral incisor
D) Lower canine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The lower central incisors are typically the first teeth to erupt, usually
appearing between 6 and 10 months of age. Option B (lower lateral incisors)
erupts later, around 10-16 months. Option C (upper lateral incisors) erupts
around 9-13 months. Option D (lower canines) erupts around 16-22 months.
Tooth eruption follows a predictable pattern that can be used to assess
developmental progress and identify potential delays.
4. At what age can a baby usually say two to three words with meaning?
A) 24 months
B) 12 months
C) 10 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: By 12 months of age, most infants can say 2-3 words with meaning (in
addition to "mama" and "dada"). Option A (24 months) is when children typically
have a vocabulary of 50+ words and begin combining two-word phrases. Option C
(10 months) is too early for meaningful word use for most infants. Language
milestones are important indicators of cognitive and neurological development.
2
,5. Davy, age 4, is here for a well checkup. To assess for age-appropriate fine
motor skills, what activity would you ask him to perform?
A) Copy a circle
B) Cut on a line with scissors
C) String beads
D) Copy a square
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A 4-year-old should be able to copy a square, which demonstrates age-
appropriate fine motor and visual-motor integration skills. Option A (copying a
circle) is a milestone for a 3-year-old. Option B (cutting on a line with scissors) is
typically achieved by age 4-5, but copying a square is the most specific 4-year
milestone. Option C (stringing beads) is a milestone for a 2-3-year-old. Fine motor
milestones progress from gross to refined movements as the child develops.
6. What is physiological jaundice?
A) Jaundice caused by breastfeeding difficulties
B) Occurs when baby accumulates bilirubin secondary to immature liver in
newborns
C) Jaundice caused by blood type incompatibility
D) Jaundice that appears after 2 weeks of life
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physiological jaundice occurs when the newborn's immature liver
cannot efficiently process bilirubin, leading to accumulation. It is common in the
first 2-4 days of life and typically resolves by 2 weeks. Option A describes
breastfeeding jaundice, which is related to poor intake. Option C describes
pathological jaundice from hemolytic disease. Option D is incorrect because
physiological jaundice appears in the first few days of life, not after 2 weeks.
7. What level is conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
A) Serum conjugated bilirubin greater than 1 mg/dL if total bilirubin is less than
5.0 mg/dL
B) Serum conjugated bilirubin greater than 2 mg/dL regardless of total bilirubin
C) Serum conjugated bilirubin greater than 5 mg/dL regardless of total bilirubin
3
, D) Serum conjugated bilirubin greater than 0.5 mg/dL regardless of total bilirubin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is defined as serum conjugated bilirubin
concentration greater than 1 mg/dL if the total bilirubin is less than 5.0 mg/dL, or
more than 20% of the total bilirubin if the total bilirubin is greater than 5 mg/dL
(AAP guidelines). Options B, C, and D use incorrect thresholds. Conjugated
hyperbilirubinemia is always pathological and requires further evaluation for
biliary atresia, hepatitis, or metabolic disorders.
8. When does the posterior fontanelle close?
A) By 2 months of age
B) By 6 months of age
C) By 12 months of age
D) By 18 months of age
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The posterior fontanelle typically closes by 2 months of age (often by 6-
8 weeks). Option B (6 months) is too late for normal closure. Option C (12
months) is when the anterior fontanelle typically closes. Option D (18 months) is
the upper limit for anterior fontanelle closure. Delayed closure of the posterior
fontanelle may indicate hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure.
9. When does the anterior fontanelle typically close?
A) By 2 months
B) By 6 months
C) By 12-18 months
D) By 24 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The anterior fontanelle typically closes between 12 and 18 months of
age. Option A (2 months) is when the posterior fontanelle closes. Option B (6
months) is too early for anterior fontanelle closure. Option D (24 months) is the
upper limit of normal; closure after this may indicate pathology. A bulging
4
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | ALREADY GRADED
A+ | GUARANTEED PASS | PEDIATRIC/FAMILY HEALTH CARE
LATEST EXAM (GRADED A+)
SECTION 1: GROWTH & DEVELOPMENT – 45 QUESTIONS
1. Susie is 18 months old and she doesn't seem the least bit interested in being
toilet trained. What do you tell her mother?
A) She can use reinforcement conditioning to discipline Susie whenever she soils
her diapers and rewards her when she stays dry.
B) She should have Susie spend time around other toddlers who are toilet trained
so she can learn from them.
C) Susie's behavior is typical, because most children are not ready until age 2.
D) The majority of children Susie's age have started to show readiness related to
toilet training by this age.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Toilet training readiness typically occurs between 18 and 24 months,
with most children not fully ready until approximately age 2. At 18 months,
Susie's lack of interest is developmentally appropriate. Option A is incorrect
because punishment-based approaches are not recommended for toilet training
and can create negative associations. Option B is incorrect because peer modeling
alone is insufficient for toilet training readiness. Option D is incorrect because
most 18-month-olds have not yet developed the physical and cognitive readiness
for toilet training. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends waiting until
the child shows signs of readiness, including staying dry for at least 2 hours,
showing interest in the toilet, and being able to follow simple instructions.
2. Weight changes in the first year of life:
A) Weight increases 3-4 lbs, up to 10 lbs in the first year
B) Weight increases 6-8 lbs, up to 20 lbs in the first year
C) Weight increases 10-12 lbs, up to 30 lbs in the first year
D) Weight remains stable throughout the first year
Correct Answer: B
1
,Rationale: During the first year of life, infants typically gain 6-8 lbs (3-4 kg),
reaching approximately 20 lbs (9 kg) by 12 months of age. Birth weight doubles by
4-5 months and triples by 12 months. Option A underestimates normal growth.
Option C overestimates typical weight gain. Option D is incorrect because infants
experience rapid growth during the first year. This rapid growth reflects the
intense nutritional demands of infancy and is a key indicator of adequate feeding
and overall health.
3. Which tooth is the first to erupt in an infant?
A) A lower central incisor
B) A lower lateral incisor
C) Upper lateral incisor
D) Lower canine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The lower central incisors are typically the first teeth to erupt, usually
appearing between 6 and 10 months of age. Option B (lower lateral incisors)
erupts later, around 10-16 months. Option C (upper lateral incisors) erupts
around 9-13 months. Option D (lower canines) erupts around 16-22 months.
Tooth eruption follows a predictable pattern that can be used to assess
developmental progress and identify potential delays.
4. At what age can a baby usually say two to three words with meaning?
A) 24 months
B) 12 months
C) 10 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: By 12 months of age, most infants can say 2-3 words with meaning (in
addition to "mama" and "dada"). Option A (24 months) is when children typically
have a vocabulary of 50+ words and begin combining two-word phrases. Option C
(10 months) is too early for meaningful word use for most infants. Language
milestones are important indicators of cognitive and neurological development.
2
,5. Davy, age 4, is here for a well checkup. To assess for age-appropriate fine
motor skills, what activity would you ask him to perform?
A) Copy a circle
B) Cut on a line with scissors
C) String beads
D) Copy a square
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A 4-year-old should be able to copy a square, which demonstrates age-
appropriate fine motor and visual-motor integration skills. Option A (copying a
circle) is a milestone for a 3-year-old. Option B (cutting on a line with scissors) is
typically achieved by age 4-5, but copying a square is the most specific 4-year
milestone. Option C (stringing beads) is a milestone for a 2-3-year-old. Fine motor
milestones progress from gross to refined movements as the child develops.
6. What is physiological jaundice?
A) Jaundice caused by breastfeeding difficulties
B) Occurs when baby accumulates bilirubin secondary to immature liver in
newborns
C) Jaundice caused by blood type incompatibility
D) Jaundice that appears after 2 weeks of life
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physiological jaundice occurs when the newborn's immature liver
cannot efficiently process bilirubin, leading to accumulation. It is common in the
first 2-4 days of life and typically resolves by 2 weeks. Option A describes
breastfeeding jaundice, which is related to poor intake. Option C describes
pathological jaundice from hemolytic disease. Option D is incorrect because
physiological jaundice appears in the first few days of life, not after 2 weeks.
7. What level is conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
A) Serum conjugated bilirubin greater than 1 mg/dL if total bilirubin is less than
5.0 mg/dL
B) Serum conjugated bilirubin greater than 2 mg/dL regardless of total bilirubin
C) Serum conjugated bilirubin greater than 5 mg/dL regardless of total bilirubin
3
, D) Serum conjugated bilirubin greater than 0.5 mg/dL regardless of total bilirubin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is defined as serum conjugated bilirubin
concentration greater than 1 mg/dL if the total bilirubin is less than 5.0 mg/dL, or
more than 20% of the total bilirubin if the total bilirubin is greater than 5 mg/dL
(AAP guidelines). Options B, C, and D use incorrect thresholds. Conjugated
hyperbilirubinemia is always pathological and requires further evaluation for
biliary atresia, hepatitis, or metabolic disorders.
8. When does the posterior fontanelle close?
A) By 2 months of age
B) By 6 months of age
C) By 12 months of age
D) By 18 months of age
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The posterior fontanelle typically closes by 2 months of age (often by 6-
8 weeks). Option B (6 months) is too late for normal closure. Option C (12
months) is when the anterior fontanelle typically closes. Option D (18 months) is
the upper limit for anterior fontanelle closure. Delayed closure of the posterior
fontanelle may indicate hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure.
9. When does the anterior fontanelle typically close?
A) By 2 months
B) By 6 months
C) By 12-18 months
D) By 24 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The anterior fontanelle typically closes between 12 and 18 months of
age. Option A (2 months) is when the posterior fontanelle closes. Option B (6
months) is too early for anterior fontanelle closure. Option D (24 months) is the
upper limit of normal; closure after this may indicate pathology. A bulging
4
