NR 667 COMPREHENSIVE EXIT ASSESSMENT EXAM PREP
2026 | CEA EXAM STYLE V1 | ULTIMATE NURSING STUDY
GUIDE | HIGH-YIELD PRACTICE QUESTIONS | CORRECT
ANSWERS | DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
NR 667 COMPREHENSIVE EXIT ASSESSMENT EXAM PREP 2026
CEA Exam Style V1 | Ultimate Nursing Study Guide
200 High-Yield Practice Questions • Correct Answers • Detailed Rationales
Course: NR 667 – Comprehensive Exit Assessment Exam Prep
Academic Year: 2026–2027
Study Resource Classification: Comprehensive Nursing Exam Preparation
Format: Multiple-Choice and Short-Answer Questions
Question Count: 200
Edition: V1
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. Introduction — Questions 1–40
2. Core Concepts — Questions 41–80
3. Applied Scenarios — Questions 81–120
4. Critical Thinking — Questions 121–160
5. Review Questions — Questions 161–200
6. SEO Description and Keywords
SECTION I — INTRODUCTION
Questions 1–40
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client who reports sudden shortness of breath and chest discomfort. What
should the nurse do first?
,A. Obtain a complete health history
B. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation
C. Administer the prescribed analgesic
D. Document the client's symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Airway, breathing, and circulation are immediate priorities because impaired
oxygenation or circulation can rapidly become life-threatening. A complete history and
documentation follow stabilization.
Question 2
Which finding should the nurse recognize as an early indicator of hypoxia?
A. Bradycardia
B. Restlessness
C. Cyanosis
D. Severe hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness, anxiety, and altered behavior can occur early when oxygenation is
inadequate. Cyanosis and severe hemodynamic changes are generally later or more advanced
findings.
Question 3
Which nursing action best demonstrates client advocacy?
A. Following every family request
B. Supporting the client's informed healthcare decision
C. Making decisions for a confused client
D. Avoiding discussion of treatment alternatives
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Advocacy involves protecting the client's rights, preferences, values, and informed
choices. The nurse should facilitate decision-making rather than substitute personal preferences.
Question 4
Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?
,A. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F)
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min after opioid administration
C. Blood pressure of 132/78 mm Hg
D. Pain rating of 4/10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min after an opioid suggests respiratory depression and
possible opioid toxicity. Airway and ventilation take priority.
Question 5
What is the primary purpose of informed consent?
A. To eliminate all treatment risks
B. To document that the client understands the proposed procedure
C. To allow the nurse to choose the treatment
D. To guarantee a successful outcome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent supports autonomous decision-making by ensuring that the client
receives appropriate information about the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives.
Question 6
Which action is most effective for preventing transmission of infection?
A. Wearing gloves for every client interaction
B. Performing appropriate hand hygiene
C. Keeping the client's room door closed
D. Using sterile gloves during routine care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hand hygiene is one of the most important measures for interrupting transmission of
microorganisms. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene.
Question 7
A nurse identifies a medication error immediately after administration. What should the nurse do
first?
, A. Alter the medication record
B. Assess the client
C. Notify the media
D. Wait for symptoms to occur
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's immediate safety is the priority. The nurse should assess for actual or
potential effects, then follow institutional reporting and notification procedures.
Question 8
Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client requesting a sleep aid
B. Client with new-onset stridor
C. Client awaiting discharge instructions
D. Client reporting chronic back pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Stridor indicates upper-airway obstruction and can rapidly progress to respiratory
failure. Airway threats receive immediate priority.
Question 9
Which intervention is appropriate when caring for a client at risk for falls?
A. Keep all four side rails raised
B. Place frequently used items within reach
C. Encourage the client to walk independently
D. Keep the room completely dark at night
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping essential items within reach reduces unnecessary attempts to get out of bed.
Four side rails may constitute a restraint depending on circumstances.
Question 10
A nurse is delegating a task to assistive personnel. Which responsibility remains with the RN?
2026 | CEA EXAM STYLE V1 | ULTIMATE NURSING STUDY
GUIDE | HIGH-YIELD PRACTICE QUESTIONS | CORRECT
ANSWERS | DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
NR 667 COMPREHENSIVE EXIT ASSESSMENT EXAM PREP 2026
CEA Exam Style V1 | Ultimate Nursing Study Guide
200 High-Yield Practice Questions • Correct Answers • Detailed Rationales
Course: NR 667 – Comprehensive Exit Assessment Exam Prep
Academic Year: 2026–2027
Study Resource Classification: Comprehensive Nursing Exam Preparation
Format: Multiple-Choice and Short-Answer Questions
Question Count: 200
Edition: V1
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. Introduction — Questions 1–40
2. Core Concepts — Questions 41–80
3. Applied Scenarios — Questions 81–120
4. Critical Thinking — Questions 121–160
5. Review Questions — Questions 161–200
6. SEO Description and Keywords
SECTION I — INTRODUCTION
Questions 1–40
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client who reports sudden shortness of breath and chest discomfort. What
should the nurse do first?
,A. Obtain a complete health history
B. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation
C. Administer the prescribed analgesic
D. Document the client's symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Airway, breathing, and circulation are immediate priorities because impaired
oxygenation or circulation can rapidly become life-threatening. A complete history and
documentation follow stabilization.
Question 2
Which finding should the nurse recognize as an early indicator of hypoxia?
A. Bradycardia
B. Restlessness
C. Cyanosis
D. Severe hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness, anxiety, and altered behavior can occur early when oxygenation is
inadequate. Cyanosis and severe hemodynamic changes are generally later or more advanced
findings.
Question 3
Which nursing action best demonstrates client advocacy?
A. Following every family request
B. Supporting the client's informed healthcare decision
C. Making decisions for a confused client
D. Avoiding discussion of treatment alternatives
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Advocacy involves protecting the client's rights, preferences, values, and informed
choices. The nurse should facilitate decision-making rather than substitute personal preferences.
Question 4
Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?
,A. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F)
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min after opioid administration
C. Blood pressure of 132/78 mm Hg
D. Pain rating of 4/10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min after an opioid suggests respiratory depression and
possible opioid toxicity. Airway and ventilation take priority.
Question 5
What is the primary purpose of informed consent?
A. To eliminate all treatment risks
B. To document that the client understands the proposed procedure
C. To allow the nurse to choose the treatment
D. To guarantee a successful outcome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent supports autonomous decision-making by ensuring that the client
receives appropriate information about the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives.
Question 6
Which action is most effective for preventing transmission of infection?
A. Wearing gloves for every client interaction
B. Performing appropriate hand hygiene
C. Keeping the client's room door closed
D. Using sterile gloves during routine care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hand hygiene is one of the most important measures for interrupting transmission of
microorganisms. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene.
Question 7
A nurse identifies a medication error immediately after administration. What should the nurse do
first?
, A. Alter the medication record
B. Assess the client
C. Notify the media
D. Wait for symptoms to occur
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's immediate safety is the priority. The nurse should assess for actual or
potential effects, then follow institutional reporting and notification procedures.
Question 8
Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client requesting a sleep aid
B. Client with new-onset stridor
C. Client awaiting discharge instructions
D. Client reporting chronic back pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Stridor indicates upper-airway obstruction and can rapidly progress to respiratory
failure. Airway threats receive immediate priority.
Question 9
Which intervention is appropriate when caring for a client at risk for falls?
A. Keep all four side rails raised
B. Place frequently used items within reach
C. Encourage the client to walk independently
D. Keep the room completely dark at night
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping essential items within reach reduces unnecessary attempts to get out of bed.
Four side rails may constitute a restraint depending on circumstances.
Question 10
A nurse is delegating a task to assistive personnel. Which responsibility remains with the RN?
