ATI RN Comprehensive 2026/2027 | ATI RN
Comprehensive Nursing Review Study Guide & Exam
Prep | ATI RN Comprehensive Practice Questions,
Answers & Detailed Rationales | ATI Nursing
Comprehensive Review, NCLEX-RN Readiness, Adult
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Fundamentals,
Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric
Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Community Health,
Leadership & Management, Prioritization, Delegation,
Patient Safety, Care Coordination, Clinical Judgment,
NGN Case Studies & Comprehensive Nursing Exam
Practice
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for digoxin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin
toxicity?
A. Heart rate of 58/min
B. Blood pressure of 148/88 mm Hg
C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
D. Respiratory rate of 22/min
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because digoxin and
potassium compete for the same binding sites on the sodium-potassium pump. A low
serum potassium level potentiates the effects of digoxin, increasing the risk for toxicity.
While bradycardia can be a sign of toxicity, a heart rate of 58/min is not necessarily
toxic. Blood pressure and respiratory rate are not directly indicative of digoxin toxicity.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV furosemide. Which of
the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
B. Blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg
C. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg in 24 hr
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant hypotension due to
fluid volume depletion. A blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg indicates hypotension and
requires immediate notification of the provider. Urine output of 50 mL/hr is adequate. A
serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L is within the expected reference range. A weight loss of
0.5 kg in 24 hr is a therapeutic effect of the medication.
,Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for warfarin.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
B. "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
C. "I will take aspirin for headaches."
D. "I will double my dose if I miss one."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Using a soft
toothbrush reduces the risk of gum bleeding. Increasing intake of green leafy vegetables
(vitamin K) would antagonize warfarin's effects. Aspirin increases the risk of bleeding
when taken with warfarin. Clients should never double a missed dose of warfarin.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Insert a padded tongue blade into the client's mouth.
B. Restrain the client's arms and legs.
C. Turn the client onto their side.
D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Turn the client onto their side.
Rationale: The priority action during a tonic-clonic seizure is to protect the client's
airway and prevent aspiration. Turning the client onto their side allows secretions to
drain from the mouth and keeps the tongue from obstructing the airway. Inserting
anything into the mouth is contraindicated due to the risk of injury. Restraints can cause
injury. Oxygen administration is important but secondary to airway positioning.
Question 5: A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has chronic
kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 10 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin 16 g/dL
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for hyperkalemia due to
decreased renal excretion of potassium. A serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L is elevated
and is an expected finding. Serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL is within normal limits but
would be elevated in CKD. BUN of 10 mg/dL is low. Hemoglobin of 16 g/dL is high;
clients with CKD typically have anemia.
,Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery with a
new colostomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
A. A stoma that is pink and moist
B. A stoma that is dusky and blue
C. Small amount of serosanguineous drainage
D. Mild edema around the stoma
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A stoma that is dusky and blue
Rationale: A healthy stoma should be pink to red and moist. A dusky, blue, or dark
stoma indicates inadequate blood supply (ischemia) and must be reported immediately
to the provider. Mild edema and small amounts of serosanguineous drainage are
expected findings in the immediate postoperative period.
Question 7: A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the
following findings indicates a transfusion reaction?
A. Temperature increase of 1.8°F (1°C)
B. Heart rate of 88/min
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Temperature increase of 1.8°F (1°C)
Rationale: A fever, defined as a temperature increase of 1.8°F (1°C) or more, is a
common sign of a febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the
transfusion immediately and notify the provider. Heart rate of 88/min, blood pressure of
118/76 mm Hg, and urine output of 40 mL/hr are within expected reference ranges.
Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus about
hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as a
manifestation of hypoglycemia?
A. Polyuria
B. Polydipsia
C. Shakiness
D. Fruity breath odor
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Shakiness
Rationale: Shakiness (tremors) is a classic manifestation of hypoglycemia due to the
release of epinephrine. Polyuria and polydipsia are manifestations of hyperglycemia.
Fruity breath odor is a manifestation of diabetic ketoacidosis, a complication of
hyperglycemia.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following a
total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
, A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
B. Flex the client's hip beyond 90 degrees.
C. Encourage the client to cross their legs.
D. Position the client flat on their back with legs extended.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, the nurse should place a pillow or abduction
device between the client's legs when turning to prevent hip dislocation. Flexing the hip
beyond 90 degrees, crossing the legs, and adducting the legs are all contraindicated
because they increase the risk of dislocation.
Question 10: A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking
furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a
complication of the medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss, leading to
hypokalemia. Clients should be monitored for low potassium levels and may need
potassium supplementation. Furosemide treats hypertension, not causes it. It can
cause hyponatremia, not hypernatremia. It does not typically cause bradycardia.
Question 11: A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an
infant. Which of the following sites should the nurse select?
A. Deltoid
B. Ventrogluteal
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Dorsogluteal
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Vastus lateralis
Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants
because it is well-developed at birth and has a large muscle mass. The deltoid is not
well-developed in infants. The ventrogluteal site is used for older children and adults.
The dorsogluteal site is contraindicated in infants due to the risk of sciatic nerve injury.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for lithium
carbonate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L
B. Serum lithium level of 2.0 mEq/L
C. Weight gain of 1 kg
D. Mild hand tremor
Comprehensive Nursing Review Study Guide & Exam
Prep | ATI RN Comprehensive Practice Questions,
Answers & Detailed Rationales | ATI Nursing
Comprehensive Review, NCLEX-RN Readiness, Adult
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Fundamentals,
Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric
Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Community Health,
Leadership & Management, Prioritization, Delegation,
Patient Safety, Care Coordination, Clinical Judgment,
NGN Case Studies & Comprehensive Nursing Exam
Practice
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for digoxin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin
toxicity?
A. Heart rate of 58/min
B. Blood pressure of 148/88 mm Hg
C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
D. Respiratory rate of 22/min
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because digoxin and
potassium compete for the same binding sites on the sodium-potassium pump. A low
serum potassium level potentiates the effects of digoxin, increasing the risk for toxicity.
While bradycardia can be a sign of toxicity, a heart rate of 58/min is not necessarily
toxic. Blood pressure and respiratory rate are not directly indicative of digoxin toxicity.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV furosemide. Which of
the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
B. Blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg
C. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg in 24 hr
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant hypotension due to
fluid volume depletion. A blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg indicates hypotension and
requires immediate notification of the provider. Urine output of 50 mL/hr is adequate. A
serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L is within the expected reference range. A weight loss of
0.5 kg in 24 hr is a therapeutic effect of the medication.
,Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for warfarin.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
B. "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
C. "I will take aspirin for headaches."
D. "I will double my dose if I miss one."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Using a soft
toothbrush reduces the risk of gum bleeding. Increasing intake of green leafy vegetables
(vitamin K) would antagonize warfarin's effects. Aspirin increases the risk of bleeding
when taken with warfarin. Clients should never double a missed dose of warfarin.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Insert a padded tongue blade into the client's mouth.
B. Restrain the client's arms and legs.
C. Turn the client onto their side.
D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Turn the client onto their side.
Rationale: The priority action during a tonic-clonic seizure is to protect the client's
airway and prevent aspiration. Turning the client onto their side allows secretions to
drain from the mouth and keeps the tongue from obstructing the airway. Inserting
anything into the mouth is contraindicated due to the risk of injury. Restraints can cause
injury. Oxygen administration is important but secondary to airway positioning.
Question 5: A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has chronic
kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 10 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin 16 g/dL
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for hyperkalemia due to
decreased renal excretion of potassium. A serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L is elevated
and is an expected finding. Serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL is within normal limits but
would be elevated in CKD. BUN of 10 mg/dL is low. Hemoglobin of 16 g/dL is high;
clients with CKD typically have anemia.
,Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery with a
new colostomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
A. A stoma that is pink and moist
B. A stoma that is dusky and blue
C. Small amount of serosanguineous drainage
D. Mild edema around the stoma
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A stoma that is dusky and blue
Rationale: A healthy stoma should be pink to red and moist. A dusky, blue, or dark
stoma indicates inadequate blood supply (ischemia) and must be reported immediately
to the provider. Mild edema and small amounts of serosanguineous drainage are
expected findings in the immediate postoperative period.
Question 7: A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the
following findings indicates a transfusion reaction?
A. Temperature increase of 1.8°F (1°C)
B. Heart rate of 88/min
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Temperature increase of 1.8°F (1°C)
Rationale: A fever, defined as a temperature increase of 1.8°F (1°C) or more, is a
common sign of a febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the
transfusion immediately and notify the provider. Heart rate of 88/min, blood pressure of
118/76 mm Hg, and urine output of 40 mL/hr are within expected reference ranges.
Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus about
hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as a
manifestation of hypoglycemia?
A. Polyuria
B. Polydipsia
C. Shakiness
D. Fruity breath odor
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Shakiness
Rationale: Shakiness (tremors) is a classic manifestation of hypoglycemia due to the
release of epinephrine. Polyuria and polydipsia are manifestations of hyperglycemia.
Fruity breath odor is a manifestation of diabetic ketoacidosis, a complication of
hyperglycemia.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following a
total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
, A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
B. Flex the client's hip beyond 90 degrees.
C. Encourage the client to cross their legs.
D. Position the client flat on their back with legs extended.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, the nurse should place a pillow or abduction
device between the client's legs when turning to prevent hip dislocation. Flexing the hip
beyond 90 degrees, crossing the legs, and adducting the legs are all contraindicated
because they increase the risk of dislocation.
Question 10: A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking
furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a
complication of the medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss, leading to
hypokalemia. Clients should be monitored for low potassium levels and may need
potassium supplementation. Furosemide treats hypertension, not causes it. It can
cause hyponatremia, not hypernatremia. It does not typically cause bradycardia.
Question 11: A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an
infant. Which of the following sites should the nurse select?
A. Deltoid
B. Ventrogluteal
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Dorsogluteal
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Vastus lateralis
Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants
because it is well-developed at birth and has a large muscle mass. The deltoid is not
well-developed in infants. The ventrogluteal site is used for older children and adults.
The dorsogluteal site is contraindicated in infants due to the risk of sciatic nerve injury.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for lithium
carbonate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L
B. Serum lithium level of 2.0 mEq/L
C. Weight gain of 1 kg
D. Mild hand tremor
